According to the Mediterranean diet pyramid, one should eat fish and seafood :
d. twice a week
Oldways created the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid in 1993. It was in partnership with the Harvard School of Public Health and the WHO. It was given as a healthier alternative to the USDA's original food pyramid.
Fruits, vegetables, grains, olive oil, beans, nuts, legumes & seeds, herbs form the base of the Mediterranean pyramid.
Mediterranean diet pyramid describes the traditional diet and lifestyle of countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea and it can be seen as a guideline for following a Mediterranean diet.
Along it is non-restrictive and easy to follow, Mediterranean diet has shown to promote heart health, manage weight and delay neurodegenerative disorders. Although Mediterranean diet pyramid was created in the 1990s, it aligns with the diet's current healthy eating principles.
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a 90-year-old client is experiencing an increased difficulty with memory and tells the nurse that it must be dementia. the difficulty began after the death of a spouse last year and continues to present day. the nurse anticipates that the health care provider will initially rule out which most likely condition before considering dementia?
The 90-year-old client, who has depression, informs the nurse that he must have dementia because he is having increasing memory problems. After a partner passed away, the problem started.
A mental illness that is defined by a low mood and a sustained loss of enjoyment or interest in life, frequently accompanied by other symptoms like sadness, feelings of guilt. It is called depression
Memory problems can occur for a variety of reasons, not just depression. Numerous factors may contribute to short-term memory loss . The most frequent causes of Memory problems are listed below. Fortunately, a lot of them have reversible effects: head feelings that may result in disability and memory loss.
Over 280 million people of all ages experience depression, a mental condition characterized by a depressed mood and reluctance to action.
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an elderly client returns to a surgical room from the post anesthesia care unit (pacu) following an open reduction and fixation of a fractured ankle. which nursing assessment of the client takes priority?
Patient and family education is the primary nursing intervention throughout the preoperative phase. Utilize every chance while the patient is being evaluated and getting ready for surgery to provide them information that will help them feel more comfortable and less anxious.
Describe anesthesia.
Anesthesia is a controlled, momentary loss of consciousness or emotion that is brought on for therapeutic purposes. A person who is anesthetized is one who is affected by anesthetic drugs.
Anesthesia has made it possible to do procedures that would otherwise be technically impossible or would leave a patient in excruciating or intolerable agony.
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a client is brought to the emergency department in a confused state, with slurred speech, characteristics of a headache, and right facial droop. the vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 170/88 mm hg, pulse of 92 beats/minute, and respirations at 24 breaths/minute. on which bodily system does the nurse focus the nursing assessment?
The primary emphasis of the nurse's nursing assessment must be the neurovascular system. Evaluation of neurovascular health is essential for the early diagnosis of neurovascular deterioration or impairment.
Delays in the diagnosis of neurovascular system dysfunction can lead to permanent impairments, limb loss, or even death. Neurovascular system degeneration may occur following trauma, surgery, or cast wear. If the neurovascular system function is compromised, patients may have decreased sensation, loss of sensory experience, dysesthesia, coldness, stinging, or pins and needles. An epidural or nerve block may cause changes in how the patient feels; the neurovascular system assessment of the patient in the datasheet in the EMR should represent this.
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Question 1
is the period in which parents and children jointly control children's behavior.
Answer:
ages 6 to 12
Explanation:
a client comes to the facility reporting acute pain. when assessing the client, the nurse understands that moderate, superficial acute pain can result in which sympathetic physiologic response(s)? select all that apply.
The nurse understands that moderate, superficial acute pain can result in decreased blood pressure decreased pulse rapid and irregular respirations sympathetic physiologic response.
Whether the tension or danger is real or imagined, our bodies react when we believe we are in danger or under stress. Cortisol, adrenaline, and other stress hormones are produced by your body as part of the fight-or-flight response, which serves to protect you by preparing you for either a fight or a run. When you have a phobia, being around the thing that makes you anxious can set off several kinds of physiological reaponse. An extreme and unreasonable fear can cause physical symptoms as a result of high blood preasure the body's physiological reaponse.
Dizziness
oral aridity
breath more quickly
anxiety in the heart
Nausea
Attacks of panic (blood preasure)
Shaking
Sweating
But if you experience them, it's crucial to consult your doctor because these physical symptoms can resemble those of some medical disorders.
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four clients were admitted to the emergency department with severe chest pain. all were given preliminary treatment with aspirin, morphine, oxygen, and nitrates and were monitored by ecg. which client most likely experienced myocardial infarction?
An 80-year-old woman whose pain was not relieved by rest or nitrates had an ECG that showed ST-segment elevation with inverted T waves and abnormal Q waves; as a result, her levels of cardiac markers increased and she eventually suffered a myocardial infarction.
Myocardial infarction:
The heart muscle starts to die as a result of inadequate blood flow during a heart attack, which is medically referred to as a myocardial infarction. Typically, a blockage in the arteries supplying blood to your heart is what causes this.
Symptoms:
Pressure, tightness, soreness, squeezing, or painful chest pain are some symptoms.
spreads to the shoulder, arm, back, neck, mouth, teeth, or occasionally the upper belly.
sweating ice.
Fatigue.
Indigestion or heartburn.
acute dizziness or lightheadedness.
Nausea.
breathing difficulty
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a 2-year-old child who has had otitis media (om) for 4 months and been treated with several courses of antibiotics now appears to have some hearing loss. the nurse anticipates that the most appropriate treatment for the child would be:
When a 2-year-old kid is diagnosed with acute otitis media, the nurse should include amoxicillin oral suspension in the plan of therapy.
The second-most frequent diagnosis in children's emergency rooms is acute otitis media (AOM), also referred to as an ear infection. Although it can occur at any age, it is often diagnosed between the ages of 6 and 24 months. Otitis media is the medical term for middle ear discomfort or infection. This condition can be brought on by a cold, a sore throat, or a respiratory infection. Particularly in the first two to four years of life, children are more prone than adults to experience ear infections. Bacteria find it easier to travel through their shorter, more horizontal eustachian tubes.
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Under what health-related circumstances would Darla need to reschedule the test for Ms. Robinson?
The health-related circumstances under which Darla needs to reschedule the spirometry test for Ms. Robinson is she had a recent surgery.
Spirometry testing may be rescheduled, If you have had recent surgery. If you have had a recent condition called pneumothorax. A quick test called spirometry measures how much air you can forcefully exhale in one breath to help diagnose and monitor certain lung problems. A tool called a spirometer is used to perform it.
In addition to this, Spirometry examinations may cause an increase in ocular pressure. You might not be able to take the test if you have unstable heart conditions too. Due to increased pressure during the spirometry exam, there is an elevated risk that this may rupture. If you are ill or feel ill, then also you should not go for a spirometry test.
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which health care provider is the highest priority for immediate assistance in the first 24 hours following the birth of a newborn with a cleft lip?
The process of making and releasing milk from your mammary glands in your breasts is called lactation.
What about lactation?When hormonal changes occur during pregnancy, the mammary glands are told to start out producing milk in order to get ready for the birth of your child. Colostrums, transitional milk, and mature milk are the three unique phases of breast milk. During one breastfeeding session, about 54-234 mL/1.82-7.91 oz of milk could also be produced. Depending on the baby's hunger, what proportion milk is extracted during each session, and other external factors, a mother may breastfeed her child between 4 and 13 times everyday. A breastfeeding session typically lasts between 12 and 67 minutes. During the latter several months of pregnancy, a sophisticated interaction between the hormones estrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen causes the body to naturally produce breast milk (lactation).Learn more about lactation here:
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a client with obesity is interested in trying orlistat for weight loss. which disease or condition in the client's medical history alert the nurse of potential complications if the client uses this medication?
Orlistat interacts with enzymes to assist stop the breakdown of fat. In order to block the digestion of 30% of the fat that is consumed, orlistat (Xenical) binds to pancreatic and stomach lipase. This lowers calorie intake.
Orlistat medicine aids in weight loss when combined with a reduced-calorie diet, exercise regimen, and behavioural changes recommended by your doctor. Some overweight persons, such as those who are obese or have health issues related to their weight, use it. Additionally, taking orlistat can prevent you from gaining the weight you've already lost back. The numerous health concerns associated with obesity, such as heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and a shortened lifespan, can be reduced by losing weight and keeping it off. Before being absorbed by the body, dietary fats must first be broken down into smaller bits. Orlistat functions by preventing the enzyme that breaks down dietary lipids. Following that, this undigested fat is eliminated from your body by bowel movements. Since orlistat does not prevent the absorption of calories from sugar and other non-fat meals, you must still limit your overall calorie consumption.
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hild is diagnosed with scarlet fever. history reveals that the child has no known drug allergies. when preparing the child's plan of care, the nurse would anticipate administering which agent as the drug of choice?
Children are the major victims of the bacterial sickness known as scarlet fever. A characteristic pink-red rash is the result. Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria, often referred to as group A streptococcus, are present in the throat and on the skin and are what cause the infection.
What name does scarlet fever go by today?A scarlatiniform rash is the defining feature of scarlet fever, commonly known as scarlatina, which typically coexists with group A strep pharyngitis. Additionally, it may come after wound infections or group A strep pyoderma.
In the 1800s, scarlet fever outbreaks killed children all over the world, but in recent years, concerns about the illness have mostly subsided in the minds of medical professionals, thanks in part to the effectiveness of antibiotics.
The spread of scarlet fever is quite rapid. When a person comes in touch with mucus or saliva from an infected individual or someone who has the bacteria but has no symptoms, the germs are present in their mouth, throat, or nose.
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stan is 35 year old man who is dedicated long distance runner. he spends hours every week running along neigborhood streets. recently stan has had to go to the docotro due to pain in his lower leg that intensifies when he tries to run. there is no swelling or obvious damage, so he is surprised to hear the doctor say he has a fracture of his tibia. stan is most likely to have which type of fracture
Stan is most likely to have a Stress fracture.
A stress fracture is a very minor bone crack. This is a common occurrence in athletes, particularly long-distance runners, and can result from repeated trauma. The shin bone, foot, heel, hip, and lower back are all places where stress injuries can occur.
Overuse can result in stress fractures anywhere, but the lower extremity is the most common location due to impact and weight-bearing activities. The shin bone, also known as the tibia, accounts for the majority of stress fractures, accounting for between 20% and 75% of all cases. Foot stress fractures are another possibility.
Stan got a stress fracture in his tibia bone due to overuse, while running along the neighborhood streets.
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what are the significant risk factors associated with the development of skin cancers? (select all that apply.) t
A more pale skin tone, naturally Skin that tans readily, burns, freckles, or becomes painful when exposed to the sun and blue or green eyes with the development of skin cancers.
The scalp, face, lips, ears, neck, chest, arms, and hands in women, as well as the legs in men, are the areas of the body where skin cancer typically develops. However, it can also develop on regions of your body that are infrequently exposed to sunlight, such as your palms, the skin just below your finger or toenail, and your genital region.
People with darker skin tones are also susceptible to developing skin cancer. Dark skinned individuals are more susceptible to developing melanoma on the palms of their hands and soles of their feet, which are typically not exposed to the sun.
Skin cancer can take one of three major forms: basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, or melanoma.
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the client you are caring for has just been told they have advanced laryngeal cancer. what is the treatment of choice?
Total laryngectomy is the treatment for advanced laryngeal cancer.
Total laryngectomy can be the preferred course of treatment for more severe patients. Advanced cases of laryngeal cancer do not typically respond well to partial laryngectomy, laser surgery, or radiation therapy.
In a total laryngectomy, the entire larynx is removed. You can also have some of your pharynx removed. Between your esophagus and nasal passageways is the pharynx, which is lined with mucous membranes. Your neck will be sliced by the surgeon to allow access to the area.
Many candidates for total laryngectomy have underlying conditions (diabetes, cardiovascular illness, chronic lung or liver disease), which can affect the likelihood of developing postoperative problems. These conditions should be taken into account and predicted for each case. Their occurrence is associated with increased hospital stays, the necessity for additional surgery, higher expenses, and a decline in quality of life.
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you are caring for a patient with late-stage alzheimer's disease. the patient's wife tells you that the patient has now become completely dependent and that she feels guilty if she takes any time for herself. what outcomes would be appropriate for the nurse to develop to assist the patient's wife?
The caregiver separates responsibilities that cannot be controlled or limited from those that must be fulfilled. The caregiver must develop the ability to differentiate between commitments that she must meet and those that are just partially necessary while treating an Alzheimer's disease patient.
Alzheimer's disease patients have poor judgement and memory impairment, which puts them at greater risk for damage. Additionally, they show impulsivity, which raises thei r danger. It is most important to keep the area secure. Several nursing diagnoses, including limited verbal communication, powerlessness, and impaired social engagement, may all stem from communication problems. Changes in personality of Alzheimer's disease patient can increase the likelihood of self- or other directed aggression, persistent low self-esteem. When the caregiver leaves, she can let the client know, but she shouldn't count on the client remembering or forgiving her. Any amount of time that the caregiver leaves the client alone at home could jeopardise the client's safety. Being attentive and deliberate with her time and energy is more indicative of sustainability and balance than it is of giving her personal health priority over that of the patient.
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How effective are cochlear implants in restoring hearing? does the implant work the same way for all people?.
Cochlear implants don't restore normal hearing. The implant does not function the same way for everyone.
Cochlear implant recipients are said to have mild to moderate hearing loss. Deaf people with cochlear implants can hear and understand speech. However, these devices do not allow for normal hearing. They are instruments that enable the processing and transmission of sound and speech to the brain. Everyone is not a good candidate for a cochlear implant.
Only those who are profoundly deaf are able to hear and learn to understand speech and other sounds thanks to cochlear implants, which are not suitable for everyone. Patients are said to have mild to severe hearing loss after getting these surgical implants because they DO NOT restore normal hearing.
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What is the function of the highlighted
structures?
Connecting to muscles
Controlling center
Destroying foreign invaders
Circulating nutrients
The highlighted structure depicts the central nervous system (CNS). Hence, it functions as a controlling center. The second option is correct.
What is the central nervous system?The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The brain and spinal cord consist of many regulatory glands or centers, such as the pituitary gland, hypothalamus, etc. Peripheral nerves derive from this CNS and innervate different body organs to regulate their functions.
Hence, the highlighted CNS acts as a controlling center. Other options do not represent the CNS. The correct answer is second option.
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a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is admitted with acute pneumonia. the client is in moderate respiratory distress. the nurse would place the client in which position to enhance comfort?
Prone positioning is widely used to improve oxygenation of patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome.
Is COPD associated with pneumonia?Lifelong lung disease called chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) impairs breathing. In contrast, pneumonia is an infection-related, frequently transient inflammation of the lungs. Although it can increase a person's risk, COPD is not a cause of pneumonia in and of itself.severe breathlessness (with rest or activities) unable to perform any activities due to breathing problems. unable to sleep due to breathing issues. fever or chills that shake.Based on their clinical characteristics, such as chronic bronchitis with ongoing mucus production, the presence of potentially pathogenic bacteria in the airways, the presence of bacteria in the airways in stable COPD patients, and increased numbers, COPD patients may be more likely to develop pneumonia.To learn more about : chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
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a nurse working at a pediatric clinic is teaching a group of parents. a parent asks the nurse if it is okay to let the young child recover from a sore throat naturally, rather than bringing the child to the clinic for diagnosis and treatment. what is the nurse's best response?
The nurse's best response will be "It may be a streptococcal sore throat and if not proper diagnosis and treatment are not given to the child it may lead to Rheumatic heart disease and kidney problems.
What is streptococcal sore throat?A particular form of bacterium causes the ailment known as strep throat (group A streptococcus). The most frequent cause of bacterial sore throat in kids and teenagers is streptococcus.Antibiotics are frequently required for the treatment of streptococcal sore throat. Most children return to school and play within a few days with the right medical attention, along with plenty of rest and drinks.Sore throat, fever, and enlarged lymph nodes in the neck are typical symptoms.The heart or kidneys may infrequently be affected by problems.To minimize complications, treatment is essential.The majority of the time, strep throat symptoms subside within a week. Strep can cause serious problems if left untreated.To learn more about streptococcal sore throat, refer to https://brainly.com/question/5306367
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which value would change most if this label were for skim milk instead of whole milk: grams of fat, grams of total carbohydrate, or grams of protein?
Value that would change most if label were for skim milk instead of whole milk is: grams of fat.
Whole milk is cow's milk that has not got it's fat removed. The milk retains its fat and is thick. Reduced-fat milk retains only 2 percent of fat. Skim milk does not contains any fat at all. Low-fat milk is best for weight loss because it has fewer calories.
The main difference between the two is that skimmed milk powder is the milk with lower concentration of fat whereas whole milk is the one with higher concentration of fat . Skim milk also provides the same amount of protein and calcium as the whole milk but calories is less.
Skim milk is a good source of protein and provides the same vitamins and minerals as whole milk but with no fat. Fat can be lost without losing calcium because the fat portion of whole milk does not contain calcium.
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you are using jumpstart in a triage situation involving several children. how would you tag a patient who is breathing spontaneously, has a peripheral pulse, and is appropriately responsive to painful stimuli?
A patient with a yellow tag is one who is spontaneously breathing, has a peripheral pulse, and is appropriately responsive to painful stimuli.
A peripheral pulse is the feeling of a high-pressure wave of blood moving away from the heart via vessels in the extremities after systolic ejection.Peripheral pulses are those that can be felt at the body's periphery by palpating an artery over a bony prominence. Carotid, radial, and popliteal pulses are examples. A pain stimulus is a technique used by medical personnel to assess a person's level of consciousness when they are not responding to normal interaction, voice commands, or gentle physical stimuli (such as shaking of the shoulders).
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a 12-year-old girl presents with a patch of hair loss with fine scaling. occipital adenopathy is present on examination. what treatment is indicated?
Apply a warm, wet compress to the affected area, such as a washcloth dipped in hot water and wrung out. Take an over-the-counter analgesic. Aspirin, ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin, and others), naproxen (Aleve), and acetaminophen are examples (Tylenol, others)
How do you treat swollen occipital lymph nodes?Apply a warm, wet compress to the affected area, such as a washcloth dipped in hot water and wrung out. Take an over-the-counter analgesic. Aspirin, ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin, and others), naproxen (Aleve), and acetaminophen are examples (Tylenol, others)Bacterial infections, psoriasis, and ringworm can all cause swelling of the occipital lymph nodes. A variety of skin infections can affect the scalp, causing swelling of the occipital lymph nodes. Swelling of these lymph nodes can be a sign of cancer in rare cases.Swollen occipital lymph nodes are rarely dangerous on their own. However, if you have swelling in multiple lymph nodes throughout your body, you should consult a doctor.To learn more about : occipital lymph
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if the nutrition facts panel on a food label indicates that a food has 24 g of total carbohydrates, 2 g of fiber and 12 g of sugar, what is the total amount of carbohydrates in this food?
Answer:
The total amount of carbohydrates is 38 grams.
Explanation:
The true amount of carbohydrates actually includes sugar and fiber, so you add 24, 2, and 12 to get 38.
Please give brainliest!
When a woman gives birth what is it called?
A.Child birth
B.Abortion
C.Still born
D.Rainbow baby
Answer:
A.child birthbecause it is a process of reproduction
Complete the sentence.
Medication administration technology uses
to dispense the right medication to the right patient.
Answer:
Medicare is a government national health insurance program in the United States, begun in 1965 under the Social Security Administration (SSA) and now administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It primarily provides health insurance for Americans aged 65 and older, but also for some younger people with disability status as determined by the SSA, including people with end stage renal disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease)
during a community health fair, a nurse is teaching a group of seniors about promoting health and preventing infection. which intervention would best promote infection prevention for senior citizens who are at risk of pneumococcal and influenza infections?
A way to provide preventive nursing care is to identify patients who are at risk for pneumonia. The nurse recommends patients who run the risk of contracting influenza and pneumococcal illnesses to be immunized.
The severity of pneumonia, a lung infection, can vary from moderate to hospital-requiring. It occurs when an infection causes the alveoli (the lungs' air sacs, which your doctor will refer to as) to fill with fluid or pus. This may make it difficult for you to breathe in enough oxygen for your bloodstream to receive it. And it is called pneumonia.
Influenza is a viral illness known as influenza, or "the flu," is brought on by influenza viruses. Mild to severe symptoms can include a fever, runny nose, sore throat, muscle soreness, and headache. And it is called Influenza.
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question 31 if a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: a. reevaluate his or her airway status. b. begin assisting his or her breathing. c. auscultate his or her breath sounds. d. determine his or her respiratory rate.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
I think, I hope this is right
what method is inexpensive, easy to maintain, and secure, but its chief drawback is sharing the information?
Paper-based personal health record is inexpensive, easy to maintain, and secure, but its chief drawback is sharing the information.
What is personal health record (PHR)?
A personal health record (PHR) is a medical file that is kept by the patient and contains health information as well as other details about their medical care. Contrast this with the more popular electronic medical record, which is run by organisations (like hospitals) and incorporates information recorded by physicians (including billing information to support insurance claims). The purpose of a PHR is to offer an online, comprehensive, and accurate overview of a person's medical history. Patient-reported outcome data, lab findings, and information from gadgets like wireless electronic scales or (passively acquired) from a smartphone can all be found in a PHR.
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A client reports acute pain while negative pressure wound therapy is in place. What should the nurse do first?.
A client experiences severe agony while receiving negative pressure wound therapy. Firstly nurse should Assess the client's wound and vital signs of client.
In order to aid in the healing of a wound, negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) draws fluid and infection from the site. The wound is covered with a specific bandage, and a soft vacuum pump is attached. Antibiotic treatment for the wound: After cleansing the wound, smear it lightly with antibiotic ointment to stop infection. bind and cover the wound: Clean wound closure aids in accelerating healing. For small wounds, gauze and waterproof bandages are effective. Stitches or staples could be needed for deep open wounds. In many hospital settings, physical therapists are on the front lines of wound management and provide care to patients during the most crucial phases of wound care and healing. They are well knowledgeable about anatomy, tissue healing, mobility, and placement expertise. Rub-on antibiotics. Several over-the-counter (OTC) antibacterial ointments are available for treating wounds, which can aid in preventing infections.
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the nursing instructor has just completed a lecture on fetal surveillance and the use of structured intermittent auscultation (sia). the instructor knows that teaching was effective when the students recognize which contradiction to the use of sia?
the instructor knows that teaching was effective when the students recognize contradiction to the use of sia 26-year-old G4P3 at 39 weeks who is 3 cm dilated with a Category I tracing, being induced for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) Gestational diabetes mellitus is caused by a hormone the placenta produces that interferes with the body's utilization of insulin (GDM). Glucose builds up in the circulation as opposed to being taken up by the cells.
Contrary to type 1 diabetes, which is caused by a lack of insulin, gestational diabetes is caused by extra hormones released during pregnancy, which can decrease the efficiency of insulin, a condition known as insulin resistance. Gestational diabetes symptoms disappear after childbirth.
3 to 8% of all pregnant women in the US have gestational diabetes, which is a condition.
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