Cochlear implants don't restore normal hearing. The implant does not function the same way for everyone.
Cochlear implant recipients are said to have mild to moderate hearing loss. Deaf people with cochlear implants can hear and understand speech. However, these devices do not allow for normal hearing. They are instruments that enable the processing and transmission of sound and speech to the brain. Everyone is not a good candidate for a cochlear implant.
Only those who are profoundly deaf are able to hear and learn to understand speech and other sounds thanks to cochlear implants, which are not suitable for everyone. Patients are said to have mild to severe hearing loss after getting these surgical implants because they DO NOT restore normal hearing.
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Jake wanted to improve his rock-climbing abilities so he decided to strengthen his forearms with wrist curls. Which principle of physical activity does this represent?.
Aerobic is the principle of physical activity does this represent with wrist curls
Because low-intensity aerobic activities require aerobic metabolism intervention because their energy processes depend on oxygen, they will aid jake in developing more flexibility.
On the other hand, aerobics entails prolonged motions that allow muscles to stretch more while continually contracting. Other options, which emphasise strength, are also ineffective for increasing flexibility.
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5. what organizations was formed in the later 1980s to address the lack of the uniform standards for utilization review services by promoting quality and accountability f healthcare organizations through accreditation, education, and measurement programs
Patient's Rights Act was formed in the later 1980s to address the lack of the uniform standards for utilization review services by promoting quality and accountability healthcare organizations through accreditation, education, and measurement programs.
The accrediting process's chapter on patient's rights introduces and promotes the ideas of patient and family rights, raises awareness of and compliance with these ideas, and could lead to more uniformity in how these ideas are presented and used. When the criteria and content of this category are examined in the context of Israel, it becomes clear that the definitions and consequences are different from those that are provided by the law, more notably the Patient's Rights Act of 1995. The practice of having an organization or service evaluated by an outside entity using a set of criteria for gauging performance and process is referred to as accreditation.
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the nurse is caring for a client with worsening respiratory acidosis. which of these interventions does the nurse anticipate if the client's condition continues to deteriorate? resolution of the underlying emotional cause mechanical ventilation reducing the amount of supplemental oxygen introduction of large muscle exercise
A patient with deteriorating respiratory acidosis requires mechanical ventilation. Resolution of the emotional issue at hand, reduction of oxygen intake, and introduction for the muscles exercise
The term mechanical ventilation, aided ventilation, or intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) refers to the use of a ventilator to partially or completely supply artificial ventilation. Muscles exercise With the primary objective of assisting in the delivery of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide, mechanical ventilation moves air into and out of the lungs.
Mechanical ventilation is frequently needed in patients who are close to respiratory failure in order to improve gas exchange. Muscles exercise Although this type of assisted breathing is necessary for survival, it causes diaphragm weakening and muscle fibre atrophy when used frequently. Strong evidence exists that mechanical ventilation.
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gabriel ran hard against a wall until he dislocated his shoulder, bit his lip until it bled, tore his clothing in various areas, and rolled in the dirt. he then went to the er and told them he was attacked and beaten. he complained of a massive headache, abdominal pain, and shoulder pain. gabriel meets the criteria for .
Gabriel satisfies the requirements for factitious disorder imposed on self, which is when a person runs hard against a wall till they dislocate their shoulder, bit their lip until it bleeds.
He then went to the emergency room and informed them of the attack and beating. He reported having a terrible headache, stomach pain, and shoulder pain. Mental and bodily symptoms of a factitious disorder: Both physical and mental sickness symptoms are manifested in those who have this ailment. Not otherwise specified factitious disorder A disorder of this kind is referred to as factitious disorder by proxy.
When a bone pops out of a joint, it causes a dislocation. Since a dislocation occurs when a bone is no longer in its proper place.
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a patient recently experienced muscle atrophy and noticed she did not have pain when she cut herself on a piece of glass. the provider decides to obtain a needle biopsy of the spinal cord under ultrasound guidance in the outpatient setting. the biopsy results come back as syringomyelia. what cpt® and icd-10-cm codes are reported for the biopsy procedure?
In the condition known as syringomyelia, a fluid-filled cyst inside the spinal cord known as a syrinx develops. You can find code 62269 by searching for Biopsy/Spinal Cord/Percutaneous in the CPT® Index.
The nerve fibres that transmit information to the brain and from the brain to the rest of the body can become compressed and injured when the syrinx grows larger over time causing Syringomyelia. Instructional remark for Biopsy code 62269 states to refer to 76942, 77002, and 77012 for radiological supervision and interpretation. You can separately bill for ultrasound advice for needle placement (76942) in Biopsy. For the expert services, modifier 26 is added. Syringomyelia in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, which points you toward code G95.0. Code selection is confirmed through tabular list verification.
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a client who experienced shock is now nonresponsive and having cardiac dysrhythmias. the client is being mechanically ventilated, receiving medications to maintain renal perfusion, and is not responding to treatment. in this stage, it is most important for the nurse to
A client who experienced shock is now nonresponsive and having cardiac dysrhythmias. the client is being mechanically ventilated, receiving medications to maintain renal perfusion, and is not responding to treatment. in this stage, it is most important for the nurse to encourage the family to touch and talk to the client.
What is cardiac dysrhythmias?Arrhythmia (also called arrhythmia) is an abnormal or irregular heartbeat. An abnormal heart rate means that your heart rate is either too fast (usually more than 100 beats per minute) or too slow (usually less than 60 beats per minute). On the other hand, an irregular heartbeat means that the rhythm of your heart is disturbed in some way. For example, the electrical signal that controls the heartbeat can be interrupted by scar tissue in the heart. Or the electrical signal may start too early and make your heart feel like it's skipping a beat. In this case, you will immediately notice a stronger pulse after a short pause.
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a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint. true false
It is true that a person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A sprain is the injury to the ligaments around a joint. Ligaments square measure sturdy, versatile fibers that hold bones along. once a ligament is stretched too way or tears, the joint can become painful and swell.
A sprained ankle is the stretching or tearing of mortise joint ligaments, that support the joint by connecting bones to every different. A sprain happens once your mortise joint is forced to maneuver out of its traditional position, which may cause one or additional of the ankle's ligaments to stretch, part tear or tear utterly.
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according to the mediterranean diet pyramid, how often should one eat fish and seafood? a. once a week b. never c. only once a month d. at least twice a week e. no more than a few times a month
According to the Mediterranean diet pyramid, one should eat fish and seafood :
d. twice a week
Oldways created the Mediterranean Diet Pyramid in 1993. It was in partnership with the Harvard School of Public Health and the WHO. It was given as a healthier alternative to the USDA's original food pyramid.
Fruits, vegetables, grains, olive oil, beans, nuts, legumes & seeds, herbs form the base of the Mediterranean pyramid.
Mediterranean diet pyramid describes the traditional diet and lifestyle of countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea and it can be seen as a guideline for following a Mediterranean diet.
Along it is non-restrictive and easy to follow, Mediterranean diet has shown to promote heart health, manage weight and delay neurodegenerative disorders. Although Mediterranean diet pyramid was created in the 1990s, it aligns with the diet's current healthy eating principles.
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the mother of a 6-month-old child reports she has been hearing so much about autism spectrum disorder. she questions if this is something that can be tested for. what response by the nurse is appropriate?
Nurse is responded as "Screening is recommended between 18 and 24 months or when concerns are identified."
At 18 and 24 months of age, or whenever concerns about autism spectrum disorder are raised, the American Academy of Pediatrics advises doing a screening test for autism using a standardized developmental instrument. The test could be done even though the child is younger than the typical screening age if there are any found concerns.
A pediatrician typically does an autism screening during a regular well-child checkup. Inquiries regarding the child's actions at home and when interacting with other kids on the playground may be asked by the doctor, who may also observe the child. Identification of typical early indications of autism is the goal of an autism screening. Although not always present, the following are early indications of autism.
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when a client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for surgery, the nurse anticipates that the client may show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium during which time period?
client with a history of chronic alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for surgery, the nurse anticipates that the client may show signs of alcohol withdrawal delirium Up to 72 hours after alcohol withdrawal
A significant decline in mental capacity is delirium. As a result, one's brain becomes clouded and they become unaware of their surroundings. Within a few days or hours, the chronic disease typically develops quickly.
Delirium can frequently be linked to one or more causes. A severe or protracted illness or an internal imbalance like insufficient salt are examples of factors. Infection, surgery, certain medications, chronic alcohol or drug use or withdrawal are other potential causes of the illness.
Delirium symptoms can also be mistaken for dementia signs. In order to identify the disorder, health care professionals may use feedback from a family member or caregiver.
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the nurse is conducting a home visit with a school-age child with a physical disability. what behaviors by the child alert the nurse to overprotective parenting?
Answer:
Stamp's feet and try to get away from the nursea nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. what is the recommended guideline in this situation?
Since the nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. the recommended guideline in this situation is option C: Call the pharmacist to determine compatibility of the drugs.
What Is a Pharmacist?Pharmacists is a person that is often known as a chemists, or a medical specialists who create, prepare, as well as store, and distribute pharmaceuticals as well as offer guidance and advise on how to utilize medications to get the most benefit from them, experience the fewest adverse effects, and prevent drug interactions.
Therefore, note that the putting of three medications together is not advised, but if it is necessary, see a pharmacist rather than a doctor to ascertain how the medications are able to work together, the similarity of their pH values, and the potential presence of preservatives in each medication. Nurses should have access to a drug compatibility table while making any form of medication.
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See full question below
A nurse receives orders from the physician to mix a client's insulin in a syringe with two other medications. What is the recommended guideline in this situation?
-It cannot be done because it is not possible to mix more than two medications in one syringe.
- Call the physician to determine the necessity of mixing the three drugs or to see if they are compatible.
- Call the pharmacist to determine compatibility of the drugs.
-Check with the nursing team before mixing and administering the drugs.
the chief nursing officer (cno) wants to encourage nurses in the hospital to become clinical nurse leaders (cnl) and is reviewing a roster of nurses working on the medical-surgical unit. which nurse should the cno recognize as being qualified to take the cnl examination?
An RN with an MSN who is a nurse manager, has 7 years of nursing experience, is supportive, and is engaged in community service activities. nurse should the cno recognize as being qualified to take the cnl examination.
Who are RN and MSN?An RN with MSN who is a nurse manager with 7 years of nursing experience, supports and participates in community service activities, is the only CNL qualified nurse. The American Association of Colleges of Nursing requires RNs to obtain at least a master's degree to obtain CNL.
Nurses with an MSN degree can often enter leadership or management positions, including health system administrator, department head, and director of patient safety. Some nurses may use their MSN as a stepping stone to becoming a nurse practitioner (NP) or other nurses.
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hypothyroidism patients simply take supplemental thyroid hormone, however hypoparathyroidism patients do not simply take supplemental pth. what is a pharmacokinetic reason for this?
The PTH formulation generally are PTH(1-84) ,the full length molecule and other is PTH(1-34), a teriparatide which is shorter in length . These are not used in the treatment of hypoparathyroidism because of their pharmacokinetic profile. These molecules are rapidly absorbed and they don't work effectively .
Hypoparathyroidism occurs when the parathyroid glands don't produce enough parathyroid hormone. Parathyroid hormone controls the levels of calcium and phosphorus, so too little parathyroid hormone causes abnormal levels of Calcium.
Parathyroid hormone injection is used along with calcium and vitamin D to treat low levels of calcium in the blood in people with certain types of hypoparathyroidism.
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why is the percent daily value for protein omitted from the nutrition facts food label? multiple select question. it would be too confusing for the consumer. most people do not know or care about their protein intake. protein is not a public health concern for the majority of people. it would be necessary to know the protein quality of a food which is expensive to determine.
percent daily value for protein is omitted from the nutrition facts food label because Protein deficiency is not a public health concern in the United States, so it is not required to be present in food.
The nutrients that should be consumed or not be consumed in excess of the Daily Values are represented by reference amounts in grams, milligrams, or micrograms. The %DV indicates the amount of a nutrient in a single serving to the total daily calorie intake. You can tell if a serving of food contains a lot or not enough of a particular nutrient using the %DV.
In light of the fact that protein deficiency is not a public health issue in the United States, it is not necessary for food to contain it. It would be unnecessary to Know a food's protein quality, which is expensive to determine.
Vitamin D, calcium, iron, and potassium DVs must be listed on labels; Vitamins A and C no longer need to be taken. Vitamin D, fiber, and sodium's percentage of the daily value were updated. Labels must specify the grams and percentage of the Daily Value of "added sugars."
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approximately 26% of people have rh negative blood. we will check the blood tests of the next 12 people to enter an emergency clinic with injuries that may require transfusion. assume no two belong to the same family.
Approximately 26% of people have rh negative blood the blood tests of the next 12 people to enter an emergency clinic with injuries that may require transfusion is Std dev = 1.5195
P(X=n |N,p) = NCn*(p^n)*(1-p)^(N-n)
Expected number = n*p = 12 * 0.26 = 3.12Standard deviation = sqrt(npq) = sqrt(12*(0.26*(1-0.26)) = 1.52
A blood transfusion is a common medical operation in which you receive donated negative blood through a tiny tube inserted into a vein in your arm.
This potentially life-saving operation can assist in replacing blood that has been lost as a result of surgery or an injury. A negative blood transfusion may also be beneficial if an infection prevents your body from producing enough blood or some of the components of your blood.
In most cases, blood transfusions go smoothly. If issues do arise, they are frequently minor.
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a 35-year-old has been killed as a result of a terrorist attack. what should the nurse advise the friends and relatives of the victim to do during the early stages of the recovery process? select all that apply.
Nurse should support their family, friends other and community is generally helpful after such event.
What impact does a nurse's disposition have on a patient?A health system's capacity to deliver high-quality treatment and enhance patient outcomes may be seriously hampered by the negative attitudes of its nurses toward their patients. To make sure that patient care is not jeopardized, it is advised that all hospitals conduct routine assessments of nurses' attitudes.
Recieved support from family, friends, other survivors and community is generally helpful after such event. Reacreation and participation in activities help average stress reaction . Speaking out probably may or may not helpful to recover process .
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a nurse is caring for a client who weighs 325 pounds. the client's spouse reports that the client snores loudly and stops breathing frequently when sleeping. for which possibly related symptom will the nurse assess?
The nurse will assess whether the client snores loudly and frequently stops breathing while sleeping for morning headaches.
A variety of sleep or health disorders, as well as personal habits, can cause you to wake up with a headache. Common causes include sleep apnea, migraines, and a lack of sleep. Teeth grinding, alcohol use, and certain medications, on the other hand, can cause you to wake up with a headache. Headache disorders, which are characterized by recurrent headaches, are among the most common nervous system disorders. Headache is a painful and incapacitating feature of a few primary headache disorders, including migraine, tension-type headache, and cluster headache.
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the nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. the results of the test are 6.5 meq/l, and the nurse observes peaked t waves on the ecg. what priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level?
A healthy adult's potassium level typically ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 millimoles per liter (mmol/L). When levels exceed 5.5 mmol/L, hyperkalemia develops. Heart issues can arise from a reading higher than 6.5 mmol/L .
What is used to decrease potassium levels in acute renal failure?By using nebulized beta2 agonists, intravenous insulin and glucose, or both, serum potassium levels can be acutely reduced. The next step is the start of sodium polystyrene therapy, sometimes combined with saline and intravenous furosemide.A healthy adult's potassium level typically ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 millimoles per liter (mmol/L). When levels exceed 5.5 mmol/L, hyperkalemia develops. Heart issues can arise from a reading higher than 6.5 mmol/L and necessitate immediate medical attention.A common condition called hyperkalemia can be fatal if it goes undiagnosed or untreated. The quickest onset of action for insulin is when it is injected intravenously, and it is very effective at lowering serum potassium. In terms of lowering serum potassium, 2-adrenergic agonists are just as effective as insulin and have a longer half-life.To learn more about : Hyperkalemia
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the nurse is discussing cardiac hemodynamics with a nursing student. the nurse explains preload to the student and then asks the student what nursing interventions might cause increased preload. which response by the student indicates understanding?
physiologic manifestations of stress include: a. flushed skin, decreased muscle control, and vomiting. b. perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils. c. slow heart rate, low blood pressure, and severe headaches. d. increased blood pressure, decreased blood glucose levels, and chest pain.
Physiologic manifestations of stress include option(b)i.e, perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils.
Stress can be either emotionally or physically stressful. It can be sparked by any situation or notion that makes you angry, irate, or anxious. Stress is your body's reaction to a demand or task. Sometimes stress is good when it keeps you safe or helps you meet a deadline. The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system, which is known to set off "fight or flight" reactions when the body is under stress, is stimulated, which results in dilated pupils.
The apocrine glands cause sweat to be expelled when the body is responding to an emotion, such as stress, worry, or excitement. These glands release milkier perspiration that contains proteins and fatty acids. The apocrine glands are located close to thick clusters of hair follicles on the scalp, in the groin area, and under the arms.
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when changing an ostomy pouch, which action reduces the client's risk for injury? select one: a. measuring output when emptying the contents of the pouch. b. promoting the client's autonomy with bowel elimination care. c. maintaining the client's bowel elimination function. d. protecting the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage.
When changing an ostomy pouch an action which reduces the client's risk for injury is protecting the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage.
One way to protect the skin from irritation caused by fecal drainage is to use a barrier cream. Barrier creams create a barrier between the skin and the stool, which can help to reduce irritation.
Another way to protect the skin is to make sure that the ostomy pouch is changed regularly. This will help to reduce the amount of time that the skin is exposed to stool.Hence by using a barrier cream or ointment around the stoma, as well as ensuring that the skin is clean and dry before attaching the new pouch infection can be avoided. It is also important to avoid over-tightening the pouch, as this can cause skin irritation.
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eleven-year-old tommy eats large amounts of food and finds eating very enjoyable. he seems to have very little control over his appetite. his doctor suspects that tommy has a shortage of the hormone:
Eats large amounts of food, finds eating very enjoyable, and very little control over the appetite is symptoms of leptin deficiency.
What is leptin?Leptin is an appetite suppressant hormone produced naturally by our bodies. This hormone is produced by adipose or fat cells, so the levels are proportional to the amount of fat in the body. When body fat levels increase, the amount of leptin produced will also increase, this will suppress appetite. Meanwhile, as fat levels drop, leptin levels drop, and appetite suppression is removed, signaling the body "it's time to eat".
Apart from being an appetite suppressant, the hormone leptin also plays a role in many bodily functions, including fertility, immunity, and brain function. It can play a role in immune and inflammatory responses, the onset of puberty, bone formation, and wound healing.
Leptin works as a control tool that can prevent hunger or overeating. Leptin is carried by the bloodstream to the brain, where it sends a "full" signal to the hypothalamus, the part of the brain that controls when and how much to eat.
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the u.s. food and drug administration (fda) recommends that an adult consume less than 3.0 g of sodium per day. what mass of sodium chloride (in grams) can you consume and still be within the fda guidelines? sodium chloride is 39 % sodium by mass.
The FDA recommends that 7.7 gm's of NaCl be consumed because it is the amount of salt that is needed for the body to function properly. Too much or too little salt can lead to health problems.
Given sodium chloride is 39% sodium by mass
It means 100 g of sodium chloride contains 39 g of sodium (Na)
39 g of sodium is present in 100g of sodium chloride
1 g if sodium is present in = 100/39 g of sodium chloride
3 g of sodium will be present in = (100/39)* 3 = 7.69 g of sodium chloride
It means you can consume upto 7.7 grams ( 2 significant figures ) and still be within FDA guidelines.
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The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with hypertension and is treated with combination therapy, aliskiren and enalapril. Which is the priority nursing action?.
Aliskiren was added to enalapril in individuals with chronic heart failure, however there was no improvement in the side effects in hypertension. In comparison to enalapril, noninferiority was not demonstrated for aliskiren.
Antihypertensive medications like enalapril have varying effects on blood pressure regulation, so for a synergistic effect, these medications are typically combined. Ninety percent of hypertension patients have an unknown underlying etiology. As a result, the primary function of antihypertensive medications such as enalapril is to change the body's regulatory systems (such as the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and baroreceptors) in order to maintain normal blood pressure. Enalapril at a dose of 5 or 10 mg twice daily for 2336 patients, aliskiren at a dose of 300 mg once daily for 2340 patients, or both therapies for 2340 patients of hypertension, to one of three groups (combination therapy). Heart failure hospitalization or death from cardiovascular causes made up the majority of the composite outcome in hypertension.
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after reviewing the drugs that may interfere with warfarin, the students indicate that they understand the material when they identify what as requiring a dosage increase in the warfarin?
When the students identify phenytoin as requiring a warfarin dosage increase after reviewing the drugs that may interact with warfarin, they demonstrate that they understand the material.
Anticoagulant medications, such as warfarin, are frequently prescribed for people who have had a blood clot-related condition, such as a stroke. a coronary artery disease Deep vein thrombosis is a blood clot that forms in a deep vein in the body, typically in the leg. Oral anticoagulants are high-risk medications with the potential to cause bleeding. Warfarin has been used for over 70 years, and while it has been shown to increase the risk of bleeding, its effects can be reversed with vitamin K. Descriptions.
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What research question should I be asking about s lack of staff and how it impacts a situation?
If a topic is relevant, researchable, and significant, it is crucial to consider the underlying issues of the study effort.
How to formulate a research question:
Pick a fascinating general subject. The majority of professional researchers concentrate on subjects that they are really curious about.Perform some preliminary study on the broad subject.Think about your audience.Start posing inquiries.Analyze your query.The following qualities should characterize a solid research problem: It ought to fill a knowledge gap. It needs to be substantial enough to add to the body of the prior study. It ought to inspire more study.
The following traits are indicative of a solid research problem: It should fill in a knowledge gap. It ought to be important enough to add to the amount of knowledge already in existence. It ought to inspire more investigation.
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what type of resistance training scheme requires the completion of two exercises back-to-back followed by a short rest?
Resistance training scheme they requires the completion of two exercises back to back followed by a short rest is called superset.
A Short Rest is a stretch of Downtime that lasts at least an hour and is spent doing nothing more demanding than eating, drinking, reading, and attending to wounds.
A character's maximum number of Hit Dice, which is equal to the character's level, can be used at the conclusion of a Short Rest. The player rolls a die and applies the character's Constitution modifier to it after each Hit Die is used in this manner. The amount of Hit Points lost is recovered by the character. Each time a die roll is made, the player has the option of spending an extra Hit Die. Upon completing a Long Rest, as detailed below, a character recovers some wasted Hit Dice.
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what diagnosis would you give to an ex-29-week preemie who has delayed acquisition of developmental milestones and hypertonia and spasticity on exam?
The diagnosis which give to an ex-29-week preemie who has delayed acquisition of developmental milestones and hypertonia and spasticity on exam is cp.
What is hypertonia?In hypertonia, the muscles are too tight, making it difficult or impossible to move the arms or legs, for example. Signals that tell the muscle to contract are sent from the brain to the nerves and control muscular tone. Depending on the underlying cause and how it affects their life, each person's treatment and prognosis will be different.
Pharmacologics and treatment may be able to treat hypotonia. However, the underlying issues are frequently chronic. This can happen for a variety of reasons, such as a head injury, stroke, brain tumor, toxic chemicals that impact the brain, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson's disease, or neurodevelopmental defects like cerebral palsy.
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the nurse cares for clients with obesity and understands that causes are multifactorial. what factors contribute to the development of obesity? select all that apply.
Gaining and maintaining excess weight can be caused by a variety of circumstances. Diet, inactivity, environmental variables, and genetics are a few of these.
Other obesity risk factors include a poor diet, a lack of exercise, and a high level of sedentary behavior. Since diet and exercise may be changed, tackling this risk necessitates an understanding of how they contribute to obesity.
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