Answer:
Difivarin (also known as divarin) is a small molecule inhibitor that targets the enzyme RNA polymerase II (RNAP II). RNAP II is responsible for synthesizing messenger RNA (mRNA) from DNA templates during gene expression. Difivarin specifically inhibits the transcription process, which is the first step in gene expression where the information stored in the DNA is used to make an RNA molecule.
In other words, if a cell is exposed to Difivarin, the transcription process would be affected, which would in turn impact gene expression. The mRNA molecule produced by transcription is the intermediate between the DNA sequence and the protein product, so inhibiting transcription would prevent the synthesis of mRNA and ultimately the production of the corresponding protein.
It is important to note that Difivarin has not been approved for use in humans, and its effects have only been studied in preclinical models. It is currently being developed as a potential anticancer agent.
Explanation:
A tiny chemical inhibitor called Difivarin (sometimes called divarin) targets the RNA polymerase II enzyme (RNAP II). When a gene is expressed, messenger RNA (mRNA) is created by RNAP II using DNA templates.
What is Difivarin?The transcription process, the initial stage of gene expression where the data encoded in the DNA is used to create an RNA molecule, is particularly inhibited by diffivarin.
In other words, the transcription process would be impacted by Difivarin exposure, which would then have an effect on gene expression.
Inhibiting transcription would stop the synthesis of mRNA, which would ultimately stop the production of the appropriate protein because mRNA serves as an intermediary between the DNA sequence and the protein output.
Therefore, A tiny chemical inhibitor called Difivarin (sometimes called divarin) targets the RNA polymerase II enzyme (RNAP II). When a gene is expressed, messenger RNA (mRNA) is created by RNAP II using DNA templates.
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xi. Organs such as the ileum which absorb substances are often modified in ways which increase the rate of absorption. Which of the following would you not expect to increase the rate of absorption?
A Coiled tube.
B A slow blood flow.
C Many finger like projections.
D Many blood capillaries.
Which activity performed by a medical professional is primarily based on an understanding of physics?
A.
determining whether the level of hemoglobin in blood is sufficient
B.
using a blood pressure monitor to find a patient's blood pressure
C.
analyzing a patient's blood test report to determine treatment
D.
determining which tests a patient needs
E.
checking the color of a patient's eyes for suspected jaundice
Reset Next
A medical expert uses a blood pressure monitor to check a patient's blood pressure, which is a task that significantly depends on their understanding of physics.
Option B is correct
Blood is used by the body for several essential functions,
such as the following:
delivering oxygen to tissues (bound to hemoglobin, which is carried in red cells)
nutrients including glucose, amino acids, and fatty acids are readily available (in the blood or bound to plasma proteins, like blood lipids)
the elimination of waste products such urea, lactic acid, and carbon dioxide
Two examples of immunological processes are the movement of white blood cells and the identification of foreign substances using antibodies.
Blood is transformed from a liquid to a semisolid gel during coagulation, a mechanism used to halt bleeding after a blood vessel ruptures.
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to culture the bacteria and obtain the protein product, the bacteria must grow. select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the e-coli bacterial cell.
The appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the e-coli bacterial cell is to check the nutrient broth to which ampicillin has been added.
E. coli bacteria are an example of a prokaryotic cell type. E. coli is a nonsporulating Gram-negative, facultative anaerobe coliform bacterium. Escherichia coli (E. coli) is a Gram-negative, rod-shaped, transcriptional anaerobic bacterium with cells that are typically 2.0 m long and 0.25-1.0 m in diameter. Theodor Escherich first described this microorganism in 1885. Most E. coli strains colonize the gastrointestinal tracts of humans and animals as part of the normal flora.
A plasmid is a small extrachromosomal DNA molecule that exists within a cell and can reproduce separately of chromosomal DNA. Plasmids are most commonly found in bacteria as circular, double-stranded DNA molecules; however, plasmids can also be found in archaea and eukaryotic organisms.
Meningitis (infection of the membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord) and infectious diseases of the throat, sinuses, lungs, reproductive organs, urinary tract, and gastrointestinal tract are all treated with ampicillin.
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Corynebacterium, Clostridium, Escherichia, Klebsiella, Shigella, Salmonella, Proteus, and Pasteurella are considered to be generally more vulnerable to ampicillin and amoxicillin, though many of these bacteria have attained resistance.
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Complete question :
Organisms share many conserved core processes and features, including transcription and translation using a uniform genetic code. Scientists have used these shared processes and features in biotechnology. For example, for the process of some transformations, a plasmid is constructed when a eukaryotic gene of interest is added with an antibiotic resistant gene such beta-lactamase, which is used for ampicillin resistance. This plasmid is then inserted into a prokaryotic bacterial cell, such as E-coli, through a transformation process that leads to the production of the product protein from the eukaryotic organism. To culture the bacteria and obtain the protein product, the bacteria must grow. Select the appropriate condition to determine if the plasmid has entered the E-coli bacterial cell.
____ asserts that intergroup hostility and prejudice are natural consequences of group competition.
Answer:
Realistic group conflict theory
Evidence indicates that plants increase the number of stomata in their leaves as atmospheric CO2 levels decline. Increasing the number of stomata per unit surface area should have the effect of doing which of the following?
1. increasing dehydration of leaf tissues 2. decreasing dehydration of leaf tissues 3. countering the effect of declining CO2 on photosynthesis 4. reinforcing the effect of declining CO2 on photosynthesis 5. decreasing the O2 content of air next to the leaves lower than it would otherwise be 6. increasing the O2 content of air next to the leaves higher than it would otherwise be
The increase in the number of stomata per unit surface area may lead to increased dehydration of leaf tissues, Countering the effect of declining Carbon dioxide on photosynthesis and increasing the Oxygen content of air next to the leaves higher than it would otherwise be.
Leaf stomata are where the exchange of gases takes place in the gas. The CO2 required for photosynthesis enters through stomata, and the byproduct O2 is released through stomata. The temperature regulation of the leaf is done by transpiration. Water evaporation takes place and the overall temperature of the leaf is reduced which helps in protecting cytochromes, pigments, and membranes.
The number of stomata per unit area, the size of the stomata, and the speed of opening and closing of stomata determine the gas exchange through the leaf. So as there is an increase in stomata per unit area, the Carbon dioxide intake is increase, the transpiration rate increases, and more oxygen gets released to the surroundings.
So as the number of stomata per unit surface area increases, the gas exchange and transpiration rates increase.
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if the court allows someone with a first operating under the influence ( oui ) conviction to complete an alcohol education course . what happens to the license suspension ?
Answer: Apple
Explanation: if u eat apple pie WITHOUT ICE CREAM u are banned from eating sweets the apple pie HAS to be warm thank me later MERRY CHRISTMASS
PLEASE HELP BY TONIGHT: The ability to taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) is controlled in humans by a single dominant allele (T). A woman who is a nontaster married a man and they had three children, two boy tasters and a girl nontaster. All the grandparents were tasters. Create a pedigree of this family of this trait. Solid symbols should signify nontasters. Where possible, indicate whether the tasters are TT or Tt.
I NEED HELP!!! If bacterial cells which can do both anaerobic and aerobic respiration are put in separate containers of oxygen and no oxygen which container would have bacteria that made more ATP?
Answer: containers with oxygen
Explanation:
It is likely that the bacteria in the container with oxygen would produce more ATP through aerobic respiration than the bacteria in the container without oxygen, which would have to rely on anaerobic respiration to produce ATP. This is because aerobic respiration is generally more efficient at producing ATP than anaerobic respiration. However, it is important to note that the specific amount of ATP produced by the bacteria in each container would depend on a variety of factors, such as the type of bacteria and the availability of other nutrients.
e. coli bacteria are placed into a medium containing both glucose and lactose. which of the gene products (i.e., enzymes) listed below do you predict will be fully transcribed?
E) None of the possible solutions is accurate. E. coli organisms are added to a medium that contains both lactose and glucose.
Lactose can be broken down more slowly and with less energy than glucose. However, if lactose is the only sugar present, E. coli will immediately start using it as fuel. The lac operon genes, which encode vital enzymes for lactose absorption and processing, must be expressed for the bacteria to utilise lactose.
Since glucose is the preferred carbon source for E. coli cells, adding glucose to the medium will stop them from absorbing lactose. As a result, the lac-operon will be suppressed in these bacterial cells. B.
Lactose binds to the repressor and stops it from binding to the operator region if both glucose and lactose are present. As a result, the restriction on lac gene transcription is removed, and some mRNA is generated.
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Question :-
E. coli bacteria are placed into a medium containing both glucose and lactose. Which of the gene products (i.e., enzymes) listed below do you predict will be "turned on"?
A) -galactosidase
B) lacI
C) lacP
D) permease
E) None of the answer options are correct.
Two bird species that originally ate the same insect species but that eventually evolve to eat different insect species to reduce competition are demonstrating ____.
Two bird species that originally ate the same insect species but that eventually evolve to eat different insect species to reduce competition are demonstrating Resource partitioning.
Resource partitioning is the process of dividing up resources within an ecosystem to prevent species from competing for scarce resources. It's an evolutionary change that makes it easier for different species to live together in an ecological community.
A food resource may be consumed in different ways by various species. The other insect might be eaten by one species. As a result, various species coexist and can meet their needs with the limited resources available. A few animal categories are dynamic during the daytime and some are more dynamic during the evening. Subsequently, resource partitioning helps in the concurrence of various species.
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radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. a cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. the part of the radish we eat may be oval or long, with long being the dominant trait. if true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes, the f1 will be expected to exhibit which of the following phenotypes?
Complete and incomplete dominance are inheritance patterns and differ in how alleles interact in a heterozygous state and how many phenotypes the gene expresses. Genotype: RrLl. Phenotype: purple and long.
What are complete and incomplete dominace?
Complete dominance occurs when the dominant allele hides the expression of the recessive allele in heterozygous individuals. The gene expresses only two phenotypes.
Incomplete dominance occurs when neither of the alleles covers the expression of the other in heterozygous individuals, and the result is an intermediate phenotype. This gene expresses three phenotypes.
In the exposed example,
flower color ⇒ incomplete dominance ⇒ red, purple, or white.eating part ⇒ complete dominance ⇒ oval or longCross: true-breeding red long radishes are crossed with true-breeding white oval radishes
Parentals) RRLL x rrll
F1) 100% RrLl, expressing purple flowers (Rr) and long eating part (Ll)
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What is one way that a frame
shift mutation could occur?
Answer:sanasn
Explanation:
an
the law of states that genes have alternative forms, or alleles. in a organism, the two alleles of a gene separate during and gamete formation; each sperm or egg carries only one allele of each pair. this law explains the ratio of the f2 phenotypes observed when self-pollinate. each organism inherits one allele for each gene from each parent. in individuals, the two alleles are different, and expression of the allele masks the phenotypic effect of the allele. in individuals, the two alleles are identical.target 1 of 12 target 2 of 12 target 3 of 12target 4 of 12target 5 of 12target 6 of 12target 7 of 12target 8 of 12target 9 of 12 the law of states that the pair of alleles for a given gene segregates into gametes independently of the pair of alleles for any other gene. this law explains the ratio of the f2 phenotypes in a cross between .
The law of Segregation states that genes have alternative forms, or alleles. In an organism, the two alleles of a gene separate during and gamete formation; each sperm or egg carries only one allele of each pair. this law explains the ratio of the f2 phenotypes observed monohybrids self-pollinate.
Each organism inherits one allele for each gene from each parent. In heterozygotes, the two alleles are different: expression of the dominant allele masks the phenotypic effect of the recessive allele. Homozygotes have identical alleles of a given gene and are true-breeding.
The law of independent assortment states that the pair of alleles for a given gene segregates into gametes independently of the pair of alleles for any other gene. In a cross between dihybrids (individuals heterozygous for two genes), the offspring have four phenotypes in a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
What are phenotypes?The phenotype is described as the set of observable characteristics or traits of an organism which covers the organism's morphology or physical form and structure, its developmental processes, its biochemical and physiological properties, its behavior, and the products of behavior.
In conclusion, Gregor Mendel formulated a theory of inheritance based on experiments with garden peas. During the experiment, he proposed that parents pass on to their offspring discrete genes that retain their identity through generations. This theory includes two “laws that was described above.
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spectra occur when objects stand in the path of the
objects you intend to view and remove certain wavelengths of
light you expect from your sample.
Yes, spectra occur when objects stand in the path of the objects you intend to view and remove certain wavelengths of light you expect from your sample
What is spectra?An illustration of the intensity of light being emitted over a variety of energies is known as a spectrum.
Since the lines depict the wavelengths that are emitted from atoms when electrons transition from one energy level to another, line spectra are also known as atomic spectra.A spectrum is a state that can fluctuate without gaps along a continuum and is not constrained to a single set of values. After passing through a prism, visible light takes on a rainbow of hues, which is how the term was initially used scientifically in optics.To know more about spectra visit
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can you right me a 5 page esa. about the tabernacle hill lava tubes in Utah
Answer:
The Tabernacle Hill lava tubes in Utah are a fascinating and unique geological feature that offers a glimpse into the Earth's past. Located in the western part of the state, these lava tubes are the result of volcanic activity that occurred millions of years ago.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are part of a larger network of volcanic features that make up the western part of Utah. The area is home to a variety of geological wonders, including towering mountains, deep canyons, and vast deserts. But the lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are particularly interesting because of the way they were formed.
When a volcano erupts, it spews forth a river of molten rock, or lava, that flows down the sides of the volcano and onto the surrounding landscape. As the lava cools and hardens, it forms a thick crust on the surface. But in some cases, the lava continues to flow underneath the crust, creating a tube or tunnel.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill were formed in this way. Over time, the lava that flowed underneath the surface cooled and solidified, creating a network of underground tunnels. The crust on the surface eventually eroded away, revealing the lava tubes that lay beneath.
Today, the lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are a popular destination for hikers, geologists, and nature enthusiasts. The tubes are easily accessible, and visitors can explore them on foot or by following well-marked trails. Some of the tubes are large enough to walk through, while others are smaller and require crawling or climbing.
In addition to the lava tubes, the area around Tabernacle Hill is home to a variety of plants and animals. The rugged terrain and harsh climate have created a unique ecosystem that is home to many species of birds, mammals, and reptiles. Some of the most interesting animals that can be found in the area include bighorn sheep, pronghorn antelope, and desert tortoises.
The lava tubes at Tabernacle Hill are a fascinating geological feature that offers a glimpse into the Earth's past. They are a testament to the power of volcanic activity and the forces of nature that shape our planet. And for anyone who loves hiking, geology, or the great outdoors, a visit to the Tabernacle Hill lava tubes is a must.
Explanation:
When an enzyme is present in the R-conformation it usually binds which of the following with the greatest affinity? An allosteric activator O A competitive inhibitor O An allosteric inhibitor O The enzyme substrate
An allosteric activator is often best bound by an enzyme when it is in the R-conformation.
What is an enzyme's R state?It is in the relaxed state, also known as the R-state, which is a catalytically more active shape when the substrate or positive modulator is present. The enzyme is in a less active shape known as the taut state or T-state when the negative modulator is present.
What does place when an allosteric activator binds to an enzyme?In order to improve the enzyme's active site(s)' affinity for its substrate, allosteric activators attach to regions of an enzyme other than its active site (s). Allosteric inhibitors alter the enzyme's active site to make substrate binding more difficult.
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according to the biopsychosocial approach, which of the following factors interact to produce the problems experienced by adolescents? (select all that apply.
According to the biopsychosocial approach, the Psychological, social, and biological. factors interact to produce the problems experienced by adolescents.
In order to comprehend health, illness, and the delivery of health care, the biopsychosocial approach systematically takes into consideration social, psychological, and biological factors as well as their intricate interactions. Natural systems are a continuum along which exist biological, psychological, and social factors. In order to enhance the dyadic relationship between clinicians and their patients and multidisciplinary approaches to patient care, the biopsychosocial model assists primary care physicians in comprehending interactions among the biological and psychosocial components of illnesses.
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In the cells of multicellular organisms, proteins are assembled in the (1 point)
A. nucleus.
B .mRNA.
C.chromatin.
D. ribosome.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
The ribosome is a cellular organelle that plays a crucial role in protein synthesis, using information from the cell's DNA and messenger RNA (mRNA) to assemble the appropriate sequence of amino acids into a protein. This process is known as translation.
which of the following describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction?
Option C. A mutation affecting checkpoint 3 proteins that prevent attachment of spindle fibers damage. describes a mutation that would lead to an increase in the frequency of nondisjunction.
The detachment of the homologous chromosomes relies upon the get-together of the chromosomes at the metaphase plate in the tropical district, when each chromosome is connected with its comparing axle fiber. Spindle assembled checkpoint (SAC) is the assembly of specific proteins that check to see if the spindle fibers are properly attached to the chromosome or not. proteins that are connected to checkpoint 3.
these proteins investigate whether the arrangement of the shafts with every chromosome is correct, and afterward flag the metaphase to anaphase progress. This causes the development of the chromosome towards the post.
Any change to SAC causes expulsion of this designated spot, and chance emerges that shaft fiber can not append the chromosomes appropriately and there is the unusual development of the chromosome causing non-disjunction.
Any mutation in the checkpoint 2 protein enables the production of defective DNA, which can then proceed to the subsequent phase of the cell cycle. The second type of defective DNA results in point mutations at the nucleotide level and is not associated with non-disjunction because it does not deal with the chromosome arrangement within the cell.
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(complete question)
image attached
What does a community contain that a population does not?
OA. Abiotic factors
OB. Multiple organisms
OC. Biotic factors
OD. Multiple species
TRUNS
MATER
UNMING
TREENUE
(2000)
Answer: all various sorts of organisms, including microbes, fungi, animals, and plants.
Explanation:
which two processes must happen before cells can make large amounts of ATP for every glucose molecule split in two?
A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. the krebs cycle
D. the electron transport chain
The two processes that must happen before cells can make large amounts of ATP for every glucose molecule split in two are: (D) The electron transport chain; and (C) The Krebs cycle.
What is ETC and Kreb's cycle?The Electron Transport Chain (also known as the ETC) is a sequence of electron complexes that electrons must travel through in order to generate ATP via redox reactions. There are four protein complexes that electrons go through on their way. Additionally, there is a fifth complex that is present at the very end that serves the role of the ATPase.
The Krebs Cycle is a set of chemical processes that work to oxidise acetyl coenzyme A (Acetyl CoA) and create energy as a byproduct of this process. Within the matrix of the mitochondria, the procedure is carried out.
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A biochemist has discovered a new membrane protein in a eukaryotic cell. To determine the type of membrane protein, she decides to perform laboratory tests on the cell. She discovers that the protein is an integral membrane protein. Select the experimental scenarios that correctly support the finding that the protein is an integral membrane protein? Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a nonpolar solvent. If the protein is solubilized in the nonpolar solvent but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a detergent solution. If the protein is solubilized in the detergent solution but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer at low pH, then try to dissolve the protein with an aqueous buffer at neutral pH. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer at low pH but not in the buffer at neutral pH, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer containing a chelating agent that removes Ca²+, then try to dissolve the protein in an aqueous buffer without the chelating agent. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer with the chelating agent but not in the buffer without the chelating agent, it is probably an integral protein. Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer containing urea, then try to dissolve the protein in an aqueous buffer without urea. If the protein is solubilized in the buffer with urea but not in the buffer without urea, it is probably an integral protein.
Try to dissolve the protein out of the membrane with an aqueous buffer, then try to dissolve the protein with a nonpolar solvent. If the protein is solubilized in the nonpolar solvent but not in the aqueous buffer, it is probably an integral protein.
Large macro- and biomolecules consisting of one or more extended chains of amino acid residues are known as proteins. In living things, proteins perform a number of functions, such as catalysing metabolic processes, replicating DNA, reacting to stimuli, giving cells and organisms structure, and transporting substances. The primary way that proteins differ from one another is the arrangement of their amino acids, which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of their genes and typically allows a protein to fold into a certain 3D structure that controls its function.
The complete question is:
A biochemist has discovered a new membrane protein in a eukaryotic cell. To determine the type of membrane protein, she decides to perform laboratory tests on the cell. She discovers that the protein is an integral membrane protein. Select the experimental scenarios that correctly support the finding that the protein is an integral membrane protein?
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3. Which of the following screens out low energy wavelengths of the solar energy? a. water b. ozone c. carbon dioxide d. Carbon dioxide & water
Answer:
Explanation:
Ozone is able to screen out low energy wavelengths of solar energy, specifically ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Ozone absorbs UV radiation from the sun, protecting life on Earth from the harmful effects of excessive UV exposure.
Carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) are both greenhouse gases that absorb and trap heat in the Earth's atmosphere, but they do not screen out low energy wavelengths of solar energy. Instead, they absorb and re-emit longwave infrared radiation, which helps to regulate the temperature of the Earth.
In summary, the answer to the question is: b. ozone.
the middletown park is located next to a school. the park is mostly grass with a few trees. some students noticed that sometimes there are a lot of grasshoppers in the park, and sometimes there are very few. they were interested in what could be limiting the grasshopper population. the students began a year-long study. they collected data on the populations of grass, grasshoppers, and purple martins (a type of bird).
according to the quantity of grasshopper eggs, grasshopper populations Predators such as birds and spiders can typically reduce grasshopper populations if the spring egg production is modest.
Predators like birds and spiders can typically keep grasshopper populations in check if egg quantities are low in the spring. However, when eggs are very plentiful in the spring, more grasshoppers hatch and predators are unable to manage the populations, which can indicate serious issues for rangeland ecosystems. The immature grasshoppers might actually compete for the rarer, highly nutritious food plants if there are a lot of grasshoppers around, starving to death before they can mature and harm the range. Insect eaters, purple martins consume a lot of them every day. All kinds of flying insects, such as beetles, winged ants, flies, dragonflies, grasshoppers, crickets, moths, wasps, bees, cicadas, termites, and mayflies, are preferred food items.
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two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent ____
Two cell, four cell, eight cell and morula stages of early embryonic development represent cleavage phase where cells increase in number but are smaller than the zygote.
Embryo development refers to the different stages in the development of an embryo. Embryonic development of plants and animals vary. Even in animals, every species undergoes different stages during embryonic development 2010. Embryonic development involves intricate coordination of molecular, cellular, and tissue-level processes that must occur according to strict schedules of time and location.
While the gestation periods of mammals vary greatly (from 2 weeks in some rodents to nearly 2 years in elephants), the sequence of developmental events and their molecular underpinnings is similar from species to species. This biological correspondence provides the rationale for extrapolating the results obtained in animal studies to humans. Despite this biological consistency within embryos, there are differences among species with regard to various aspects of pregnancy. It is these differences that are explored in risk assessment.
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Red flowers (R) are dominant to white flowers (r). Parent 1 has white flowers. Parent 2 is heterozygous.
Answer: Rr X rr
Rr Rr rr rr
Explanation:
ATP is required for RNA-Pol to move down dsDNA, hydrolysis of ATP provides the energy to unwind the strands in front of RNAP while rewinding them behind. O True O False
True. ATP is required for RNA-Pol to move down dsDNA, hydrolysis of ATP provides the energy to unwind the strands in front of RNAP while rewinding them behind.
ATP hydrolysis is a catabolic reaction process in which chemical energy stored in high-energy phosphoanhydride bonds in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is released by producing work in the form of mechanical energy after splitting these bonds, for example, in muscles.
When one phosphate group is eliminated by trying to break a phosphoanhydride bond, a process known as hydrolysis occurs, releasing energy and converting ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP). When phosphate is eliminated from ADP to form adenosine monophosphate, energy is also released (AMP).
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which of the following structure contains reflex centers for movements of the eyes head and nech in response to visual and other stimuli and reflex center for movement of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli
How would transcription be affected if a gene that needed to be expressed was missing its promotor?
Answer:
it can't be used to make a protein in that cell.
Explanation:
If a gene is not transcribed in a cell, it can't be used to make a protein in that cell. If a gene does get transcribed, it is likely going to be used to make a protein (expressed). In general, the more a gene is transcribed, the more protein that will be made.
The transcription is affected as when the gene has not been transcribed the protein will not make. When a gene is transcribed, protein synthesis can happen.
What is gene transcription?Gene expression begins with transcription. To create an RNA molecule, the DNA sequence of a gene must be copied. RNA polymerases, which join nucleotides to create an RNA strand, carry out transcription (using a DNA strand as a template).
A gene cannot be used to produce a protein in a cell if it is not transcribed there. If a gene gets transcribed, it will probably be used to produce a protein (expressed). In general, more protein will be produced the more a gene is transcribed.
Therefore, the transcription is impacted since the protein cannot be produced if the gene is not transcribed. Protein synthesis can take place when a gene is transcribed.
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Dynamic cell seeding allows higher cell seeding efficacy to engineered 3D scaffolds therefore it is mostly preffered by the scientists. Fibroblasts tend to attach on the silicone tube wall but this stiuation is not appropriate for reching maximum cell seeding efficacy on a scaffold. Preventing cells for not to attach on silicone tube, applied force on a single fibroblast should exceed 6500 picoNewton (required minimum force). In the designed cell culture dynamic fibroblast seeding experiment, silicone tube inner diameter is 3.8 mm and fibroblasts surface area is 450 μm2. Please calculate the minimum flow rate as liter per minute of the fibroblasts included cell culture media through silicone tube to prevent fibroblasts adhesion on silicone tubes.
The minimum flow rate as liter per minute of the fibroblasts included cell culture media through silicone tube to prevent fibroblasts adhesion on silicone tubes is 769.210527 L/min.
What is the minimum flow rate about?To calculate the minimum flow rate of the fibroblasts-included cell culture media through the silicone tube, we have to use the following equation:
Flow rate (L/min) = (Force (pN) * Surface area (μm^2)) / (Viscosity * Inner diameter (mm))
In this case, the force applied on a single fibroblast should exceed 6500 picoNewtons, the surface area of the fibroblasts is 450 μm2, the viscosity of the cell culture media is typically around 0.5-1.5, and the inner diameter of the silicone tube is 3.8 mm. Plugging these values into the equation gives us:
Flow rate (L/min) = (6500 pN * 450 μm^2) / (1.0 * 3.8 mm)
= (2925000 pNμm^2) / (1.0 Pas * 3.8 mm)
= 769210.527 pNμm^2 / (Pas * mm)
= 769.210527 L/min
So the minimum flow rate of the fibroblasts-included cell culture media through the silicone tube to prevent fibroblast adhesion would be around 769.210527 L/min.
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