please help me im very behind​

The relation between the dollars and forints will be directly proportional. Then the number of dollars will be $ 85.

A ratio is an ordered set of integers a and b expressed as a/b, with b never equaling 0. A proportional is a mathematical expression in which two things are equal.

Levante changes 24 650 Hungarian forints to dollars.

Then the relation between the dollars and forints will be directly proportional. Then we have

Let x be the number of the dollars. Then we have

x / 1 = 24650 / 290

    x = $ 85

More about the ratio and the proportion link is given below.

https://brainly.com/question/14335762

#SPJ2

Answer:

its c i believe <3

Answer:

C) $54.00

Step-by-step explanation:

300*6%*3

300*0.06*3

which is $54.

Hope this helps plz hit the crown :D

Answer:

rates of change, positive or negative

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

For the first one =5.29150262

Step-by-step explanation:

8 squared - 6 squared =64-36=28

square root of 28=5.29150262

Answer:

2x-6=8

2x-6=8+6

2x=24

x=12

Answer:

one number= x = 44

the other number= (x-4)= 40

Step-by-step explanation:

one number= x

the other number= (x-4)

x + (x-4) = 84

2x= 84+4

2x= 88

x= 88/2= 44

one number= x = 44

the other number= (x-4)= 40

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is D ok so u see how she jsbdjdbd

Answer:

The probability of obtaining the letter p twice is 1/121

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of Recurring Events

There are 11 letters in the word 'independent', one of which is the letter 'p'.

When those letters are written on individual cards and they are put into a box, there are 11 different choices to pick at random.

This means the individual probability of getting a 'p' is:

[tex]\displaystyle P_1=\frac{1}{11}[/tex]

The card is reinserted into the box, leaving the sample space unaltered, thus the second card has the same probability:

[tex]\displaystyle P_2=\frac{1}{11}[/tex]

We'll use the multiplication rule. Just multiply the probability of the first event by the second.

[tex]\displaystyle P=P_1*P_2=\frac{1}{11}*\frac{1}{11}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle P=\frac{1}{121}[/tex]

The probability of obtaining the letter p twice is 1/121

Answer:

Mean is 6, median 5.5, mode 2

Step-by-step

Answer:

mean=8+2+7+2+6+5

=30

30÷6=5

note: divide the total with it's sum.

median=7+2

=9

9÷2= 4.5

note: median is the middle no. since there is no middle no. so just add those two no. and divide it by 2.

mode= 2

since it occurs twice

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

False,true,true

Answer:

Already simplified

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

its preety simple you just have to divide 3/10 and 1/8 and you will get your two answers

Answer:

Let `f` be a function defined on [0,2]. Then find the domain of function `g(x)=f(9x^2-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure if that's right

Answer:

[tex]\mathbf{P =\bigg (P_o +\dfrac{ I}{k} \bigg)e^{kt}- \dfrac{I}{k}}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

A country population at any given time (t) is:

[tex]\dfrac{dP}{dt}= kP+I[/tex]

where;

P = population at any time t

k = positive constant

I = constant rate of immigration into the country.

Using the method of separation of the variable;

[tex]\dfrac{dP}{kP+1}= dt[/tex]

Taking integration on both sides:

[tex]\int \dfrac{dP}{kP+I}= \int \ dt[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{k} log (kP + I) = t+c_1 \ \ \ here: c_1 = constant \ of \ integration[/tex]

[tex]log (kP + I) =k t+kc_1[/tex]

By applying the exponential on both sides;

[tex]e^{log (kP + I) }=e^{k t+kc_1 }[/tex]

[tex]KP+I = e^{kt} *e^{kc_1}[/tex]

Assume [tex]e^{kc_1 }= C[/tex]

Then:

[tex]kP + I = Ce^{kt}[/tex]

[tex]kP = Ce^{kt}-I[/tex]

[tex]P =\dfrac{ Ce^{kt}-I}{k} \ \ \---- Let \ that \ be \ equation \ (1)[/tex]

When time t = 0, The Total population of the country is also [tex]P_o[/tex]

[tex]P_o = \dfrac{Ce^{0(t)} -I}{k}[/tex]

[tex]P_o = \dfrac{Ce^{0} -I}{k}[/tex]

[tex]P_o = \dfrac{C-I}{k}[/tex]

C - I = kP₀

C =  kP₀ + I

Substituting the value of C back into equation(1), we have:

[tex]P =\dfrac{ (kP_o+1)e^{kt}-I}{k}[/tex]

[tex]P =\dfrac{ (kP_o+1)e^{kt}}{k} - \dfrac{I}{k}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{P =\bigg (P_o +\dfrac{ I}{k} \bigg)e^{kt}- \dfrac{I}{k}}[/tex]

Answer:

$14

Step-by-step explanation:

56 × 0.25 = 14

to check this, you can divide 14 ÷ 56 = 0.25

to turn a percentage into a decimal, just divide it by 100

Answer:

1/2 yard is equal to 18 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

it would take 22 gallons of gas

Step-by-step explanation:

3 divided by 60

that’s the amount of gas per single mile

then that number times 440 (number of miles you wish to go).

Answer: The price is now 14.40

Step-by-step explanation: The difference is 9.60

Answer:

29

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It would be a I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Graph A

Step-by-step explanation:

you can write the equation into desmos (search it up on google) and it will produce a graph for you and just match it to the ones you have shown

Answer :

R = 6.25%

Solution,

Let P is the principal. It means interest will be :

I=3/8 P

The formula for the interest is given by :

[tex]I=\dfrac{PRT}{100}\\\\\dfrac{3}{8}P=\dfrac{PR\times 6}{100}\\\\\dfrac{3}{8}=\dfrac{6R}{100}\\\\R=\dfrac{300}{8\times 6}\\\\=6.25\%[/tex]

Hence, the rate of interest is 6.25%.

Answer:

28258933-1

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps you

Answer: 80 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

320miles/8hours= 40mph

40mph=xmiles/2hrs

40*2= 80 miles

Answer:

It is TRUE.

Other:

Brainliest? Thanks!

Answer:

pretty sure it's

2

−

3

=

9

\frac{X}{2}-3=9

2X−3=9

2

−

3

+

3

=

9

+

3