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Answer:

i. 15.4

ii.45.2

Step-by-step explanation:

correct me if im wrong

tnx

From the steps Simon used in solving the equation, the property he applied to get to step 4 from step 3 is: A. addition property of equality.

The addition property of equality states that to balance an equation, whatever value we add to one side of an equation must be added also from the other side of the equation.

In step 3, we have the following equation:

-8x - 42 = -22

Simon applied the addition property of equality by adding 42 to both sides of the equation to get -8x = 20 in step 4.

-8x - 42 + 42 = -22 + 42

-8x = 20

Therefore,  from the steps Simon used in solving the equation, the property he applied to get to step 4 from step 3 is: A. addition property of equality.

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Answer:

slope = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Calculate the slope m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (0, 0) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (3, 12) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{12-0}{3-0}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{12}{3}[/tex] = 4

Answer:

The slope of this line is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

Pick any 2 points on the graph you want, just make sure they land perfectly on where the line meets the grid. I'll pick (1, 4) and (2, 8) here.

The slope formula is:

[tex]m=\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}[/tex]

where (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) are the first and second points you picked above. Now, all you need to do is plug those 2 points into the formula and solve.

[tex]m=\frac{8-4}{2-1}\\\\m=\frac{4}{1}\\\\m=4[/tex]

The slope of this line is 4.

Answer:

6 to the right

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes, it might be scary at first sight bexause of the square mark. But it is no more special than any other graph transformation. The sqare mark here nly indicates that this graph is a parabola, and the 6 inside shifts the graph (be careful, it is negative so it moves the graph to the RIGHT, by 6 -- the square mark doesnt apply to that).

Answer:

inches: 0.5 miles: 14

inches: 1 miles 28

inches: 1.5 miles 42

Hope This Helps!!!

Answer:

start with what's inside the parenthesis so in this case do 54x6 first then solve (2+ whatever the answer was by multiplying 54 times 6  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer A division

Answer:

  A) 1: linear; 2: exponential (see equations in part B)

  B) the value of 2 will be almost 15% greater

Step-by-step explanation:

As is often the case with multi-part questions, later parts of the question answer earlier parts. The equations shown in Part B are linear for Option 1 and exponential for Option 2.

The table values for Option 1 have a common difference of (1200 -1100) = 100.

The table values for Option 2 have a common ratio of (1210/1100) = 1.10.

Linear functions produce sequential values with a common difference (the slope of the function). Option 1 is linear.

Exponential functions produce sequential values with a common ratio (the growth factor). Option 2 is exponential.

__

The investment values after 7 years will be ...

  Option 1: f(7) = 100(7) +1000 = 1700

  Option 2: g(7) = 1000(1.1^7) ≈ 1948.72

The value of Option 2 will be about $248.72 higher, or 14.6% higher than the value of Option 1. Whether that is significant or not is in the eye of the beholder. Many people might consider that to be significantly better performance. (It would take another 2 1/2 years for Option 1 to have that value.)

Step-by-step explanation:

I cannot draw here, but I can show and tell you how to find 2 points of the individual lines that you can then mark on the chart and draw the line through them.

1)

y = 7/2 x - 2

so, the first and easiest point is the y-intercept (where x = 0).

x = 0, therefore, y = -2

so, the first point is (0, -2)

for the second point : what value of x would eliminate the fraction and make this whole integer number calculations ?

well, x = 2 !

so,

y = 7/2 × 2 - 2 = 7 - 2 = 5

and our second point is (2, 5)

2)

y = -6x + 3

the same principles. first x = 0, therefore y = 3

the first point is (0, 3)

for the second point we can choose any integer x, as all the other terms are integer too.

let's pick x = 1

y = -6×1 + 3 = -6 + 3 = -3

so, the second point is (1, -3)

3)

y = -5

this just means that for every possible value of x the resulting y value is -5.

that means it is a horizontal line through y = -5 or (0, -5)

4)

y = 6/5 x + 1

the same principles. x = 0, therefore y = 1

the first point is (0, 1)

for the second point, again, what x eliminates the fraction and makes all an integer operation ?

well, x = 5.

y = 6/5 × 5 + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7

ok, 7 is off the chart, so let's use x = -5 instead.

y = 6/5 × -5 + 1 = -6 + 1 = -5

so, the second point on the chart is (-5, -5)

the line go through 2 points ( -4 ; -5 ) and ( 6 ; 4 )

ANSWER: [tex]y=\frac{9}{10}x -\frac{7}{5}[/tex]

ok done. Thank to me :>

Answer:

x+y=10 which means that x=10-y

Replace 10-y in the other equation which gives you:

10-y-y=6

10-2y=6

-2y=-4

y=2

Replace 2 in any of the 2 equations same answer for both:

x+y=10

x+2=10

x=8

So,

[tex] {x}^{3} - y^{3} [/tex]

[tex] = {8}^{3} - {2}^{3} [/tex]

=512-8

=504

Hope this helps!

Answer:

x > -4

Step-by-step explanation:

- 16x < 64

Divide by -16 on both sides. (Remember you always do the opposite on these type of questions!)

x > -4

(When dividing or multiplying by a negative the inequality sign flips!)

Hope this helps and have a good day!

Answer:

∆EFG = 90°

∆GDH = 45°

∆FEG = 45°

∆DHG = 90°

The measure of the given angles are -

m ∠EFG = 90°

m ∠EFG = 45°

m ∠FEG = 45°

m ∠DHG = 45°

A square is a quadrilateral with all sides congruent to one another.

Given is to find the measure of angles given in the question.

We can write the measure of angles as -

m ∠EFG = 90°

m ∠EFG = 45°

m ∠FEG = 45°

m ∠DHG = 45°

Therefore, the measure of the given angles are -

m ∠EFG = 90°

m ∠EFG = 45°

m ∠FEG = 45°

m ∠DHG = 45°

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Answer:

7743 :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helped

[tex]5x + 6x + 7x = 54 \\ = > 18x = 54 \\ = > x = 3[/tex]

Answer:

The numbers are 15, 18 and 21.

Hope you could get an idea from here.

Doubt clarification - use comment section.

Answer:

there are infinitely many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2(b+14) is the same as (b+14)/2, so no matter what number you plug in for b, both sides will always be equal. thus, there is infinitely many solutions.

hope this helps <3

Answer: there is no solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see mentally that when we multiply both sides by 2, we will be left with b+14 on both sides which will cancel out ( “b” will cancel out) so there is no solution.

Answer:

RS = 46 , RT = 38

Step-by-step explanation:

A segment joining the midpoints of 2 sides of a triangle (mid segment) is half the length of the third side, then

RS = 2 × UW = 2 × 23 = 46

RT = 2 × VW = 2 × 19 = 38

Answer:

try B for an answer, hope it helps

Answer:

V = 82,406.16 cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Volume of a sphere

V = 4πr³/3

V = 4•3.14•27³/3

V = 247,218.48/3

V = 82,406.16 cm³

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4:11:7

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the GCF, or greatest common factor of the 3 numbers. In this case it is 12. To simplify, divide each number by 12

Answer:

4:11:7

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark me as brainlest

d

$5604.41 will be worth after 20 years I think

Compound interest is the interest we earned on the interest.

The formula for the amount earned with compound interest after n years is given as:

A = P [tex](1 + r/n)^{nt}[/tex]

P = principal

R = rate

t = time in years

n = number of times compounded in a year.

Option 2 will be worth $7400.25 after 20 years.

Option C is the correct answer.

It is the interest we earned on the interest.

The formula for the amount earned with compound interest after n years is given as:

A = P [tex](1 + r/n)^{nt}[/tex]

P = principal

R = rate

t = time in years

n = number of times compounded in a year.

We have,

Option 2.

1st year.

Principal = 1100

2nd year.

Principal = 1210

3rd year.

Principal = 1331

(1210 - 1100) / 1100 x 100

= 110/1100 x 100

= 10%

This means,

It is increasing at a rate of 10% annually.

Now,

P = $1100

r = 10%

n = 1

t = 20

A = P [tex](1 + r/n)^{nt}[/tex]

A = 1,100 [tex](1 + 0.1)^{20}[/tex]

A = $7400.25

Thus,

Option 2 will be worth $7400.25 after 20 years.

Option C is the correct answer.

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8 hours is twice as many as 4:

Multiply the number of windows in 4 hours by 2:

32 x 2 = 64 windows in 8 hours

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

32÷4=8 8 car windows per hour. 8×8=64

Answer:

answer = 1/8

Step-by-step explanation:

answer = 1/8

Answer:

Sale price is [tex]15.2\$[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Price is reduced by 80% from the original price.

Here original price is $76

Sale price is

[tex]=76-76\times\frac{80}{100}\\\\=0.2\times76\\\\=15.2\$[/tex]

Answer: the answer is $9,600

Step-by-step explanation:

option A = 40(24)   =  option B = x (.1)       where x is her gross sales

40(24) = x(.1)

40(24)/.1 = x = sales = $9600

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/5 and 3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

60 have 12 factors :1,2,3,4,5,6,10,12,15,20,30,60