what is the frequency (in hz) of light that has a wavelength of 400 nm? (you can enter your answer in scientific notation using e. include three significant figures.)

(a) The rms voltage is 120 V, and the frequency of the power line is 60 Hz. The circuit's impedance is calculated to be 100.075 Ω by combining the inductive and capacitive reactances.(b) tanφ = XL - XC /R where XL is the inductive reactance, XC is the capacitive reactance, and R is the resistance.(c) The average power loss is determined by calculating the average power absorbed by the resistor. By using the formula Pavg = ½Irms²R, the average power loss can be determined.

(a) The emf Srms = 120 V and the frequency of the power line is 60 Hz, the impedance of the circuit is calculated as 100.075 Ω, by combining the inductive and capacitive reactances.(b) The phase angle φ = tan^-1((XL - XC)/R) where XL is the inductive reactance, XC is the capacitive reactance, and R is the resistance.(c) The average power loss can be calculated using the formula Pavg = ½Irms²R, where Irms is the current through the resistor, R is the resistance of the circuit. Thus, the average power loss can be found by substituting the values of the variables, i.e., Pavg = ½ (Vrms / Z)^2 × R where Vrms is the rms voltage and Z is the impedance.

Know more about rms voltage, here:

https://brainly.com/question/13507291

#SPJ11

Explanation:

With most of our blue planet covered by water, it's little wonder that, centuries ago, the oceans were believed to hide mysterious creatures including sea serpents and mermaids. Merfolk (mermaids and mermen) are, of course, the marine version of half-human, half-animal legends that have captured human imagination for ages. One source, the "Arabian Nights," described mermaids as having "moon faces and hair like a woman's but their hands and feet were in their bellies and they had tails like fishes."

C.J.S. Thompson, a former curator at the Royal College of Surgeons of England, notes in his book "The Mystery and Lore of Monsters" that "Traditions concerning creatures half-human and half-fish in form have existed for thousands of years, and the Babylonian deity Era or Oannes, the Fish-god ... is usually depicted as having a bearded head with a crown and a body like a man, but from the waist downwards he has the shape of a fish." Greek mythology contains stories of the god Triton, the merman messenger of the sea, and several modern religions including Hinduism and Candomble (an Afro-Brazilian belief) worship mermaid goddesses to this day.

hello! it is velocity.

i say this because, Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist changes in its state of motion. ... The state of motion of an object is defined by its velocity - the speed with a direction.

The charge on the positively charged particle is approximately  4.08 x 10^-6 C.

To find the charge on the particle, we can use the relationship between potential difference (V), charge (Q), and distance (r) given by the equation V = kQ/r, where k is the electrostatic constant.

Let's assume the distance between the positively charged particle and the 5000 V equipotential surface is r1 and the distance between the particle and the 4000 V equipotential surface is r2. We are given that r2 is 26.0 cm (or 0.26 m) farther than r1.

Using the equation for potential difference, we can write the following equations:

5000 = kQ/r1

4000 = kQ/r2

Dividing the two equations, we get:

5000/4000 = r2/r1

Simplifying, we find:

r2 = (5/4) * r1

Since r2 is 0.26 m farther than r1, we can write:

r2 = r1 + 0.26

Substituting the expression for r2 in terms of r1 into the above equation, we get:

r1 + 0.26 = (5/4) * r1

Simplifying, we find:

r1 = 0.52 m

Now, substituting this value of r1 into the equation 5000 = kQ/r1, we can solve for the charge Q:

Q = (5000 * r1) / k

Substituting the values of r1 and k (8.99 x 10^9 Nm²/C²), we find:

Q = (5000 * 0.52) / (8.99 x 10^9)

Q ≈ 4.08 x 10^-6 C

Therefore, the charge on the positively charged particle is approximately 4.08 x 10^-6 C.

Learn more about nature of charges :

https://brainly.com/question/13871705

#SPJ11

Answer:

The can would be heavier.

Explanation:

The more rust is on the can, (Or object) the more it weights it down.

Answer:

The answer would be heavier, though it depends upon the type of metal. Rusting is essentially corrosion. Rust is often caused by a piece of metal getting soaked in water and then being exposed to oxygen. The rust will add more weight to the can so it becomes heavier.

The option that is NOT correct for a simple magnifying glass is:

d) The lens is diverging.

A simple magnifying glass consists of a converging lens, not a diverging lens. The purpose of a magnifying glass is to create a magnified virtual image of an object.

When an object is placed closer to the converging lens than its focal point, a virtual and erect image is formed on the opposite side of the lens.

This image appears larger than the object and is located at a distance farther away from the lens than the object itself. The converging lens bends the light rays in such a way that they appear to diverge from a point behind the lens, creating a virtual image.

Therefore, the statement that the lens is diverging is incorrect for a simple magnifying glass.

To clarify further, a diverging lens would cause the light rays to spread out, resulting in a diminished, virtual image. A converging lens, on the other hand, causes the light rays to converge, allowing for magnification and the formation of a virtual image.

To know more about magnifying, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/32284838#

#SPJ4

A balanced equation is a chemical equation in which the number of atoms of each element on both sides of the equation is equal. It represents a chemical reaction, indicating the reactants and products involved and the stoichiometric relationship between them.

The balanced equation for the reaction between RbNO3 and BeF2 is: 2RbNO3 + BeF2 → Be(NO3)2 + 2RbF.

To check if the equation is balanced or not, we can count the number of atoms of each element on both sides of the equation.

Here, we have Rb: 2 on both sides,  N: 2 on both sides, O: 6 on both sides, Be: 1 on both sides, F: 2 on both sides.

Therefore, the balanced equation for the reaction between RbNO3 and BeF2 is 2RbNO3 + BeF2 → Be(NO3)2 + 2RbF, which has the correct products for the given reactants.

Learn more about balanced equation here ;

https://brainly.com/question/31242898

#SPJ11

Answer:

The difference is that water is an incompressible fluid — its density is almost constant as the pressure changes — while air is a compressible fluid — its density changes with pressure. ... Atmospheric pressure is the pressure exerted on a surface by the weight of the atmosphere (a compressible fluid) above it

Explanation:

change some words

The momentum of the muon traveling at 0.996c can be calculated using the relativistic momentum equation, and its kinetic energy is (1/0.089389 - 1) × (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × c².

To calculate the momentum of a muon traveling at 0.996c, we can use the relativistic momentum equation:

p = m × v / √(1 - (v/c)²),

where p is the momentum, m is the mass, v is the velocity, and c is the speed of light.

Given that the mass of the muon at rest in the laboratory is 207 times the electron mass, we can denote the mass of the muon as m = 207 × [tex]m_e[/tex], where [tex]m_e[/tex] is the mass of an electron.

Let's substitute the values into the equation:

p = (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - (0.996c/c)²)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - 0.996²)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(1 - 0.992016)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / √(0.007984)

= (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × (0.996c) / 0.089389

Now, to calculate the kinetic energy (KE) of the muon, we can use the equation:

KE = (γ - 1) × m × c²,

where γ is the Lorentz factor given by γ = 1 / √(1 - (v/c)²).

Substituting the values:

γ = 1 / √(1 - (0.996c/c²))

= 1 / √(1 - 0.996²)

= 1 / √(1 - 0.992016)

= 1 / √(0.007984)

= 1 / 0.089389

KE = (1/0.089389 - 1) × (207 × [tex]m_e[/tex]) × c²

Learn more about kinetic energy at

https://brainly.com/question/999862

#SPJ4

The image of the object moves towards the mirror as the object approaches the mirror and its focal point.

When an object moves along the optical axis of a concave spherical mirror and approaches the mirror's focal point, the image formed by the mirror undergoes a change in position. This change is characterized by the image moving towards the mirror.

In a concave mirror, the focal point is located on the same side as the object, but at a distance determined by the mirror's curvature. As the object moves closer to the focal point, the reflected rays converge and the image position changes. The image moves towards the mirror as a result.

To understand this phenomenon, we can consider the ray diagram for a concave mirror. As the object approaches the focal point, the rays of light from different points on the object converge towards the focal point after reflection. This convergence leads to the image moving towards the mirror.

When a luminous object moves along the optical axis of a concave spherical mirror and approaches the mirror's focal point, the image of the object moves towards the mirror. This is due to the convergence of reflected rays as the object approaches the focal point, resulting in a change in the image position.

To know more about Concave spherical mirror visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31951940

#SPJ11

Answer:

The increase in gravitational potential energy is the same in both cases

Explanation:

It is easier to climb a mountain in a zigzag way rather than climbing on a straight line but since the distance is the same ( vertical height ) , mass and gravity is the same. Hence the increase in gravitational potential energy is the same in both cases.

gravitational potential energy = mgh ( same in both cases )

m = mass

g = acceleration due to gravity

h = distance ( vertical height )

Answer:

t = 1130 s = 18.83 min

Explanation:

First, we will calculate the energy required to evaporate 500 g of water:

[tex]E = mL[/tex]

where,

E = Energy Required for evaporation of water =?

m = mass of water = 500 g = 0.5 kg

L = Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.26 MJ/kg = 2260 KJ/kg

Therefore,

[tex]E = (0.5\ kg)(2260\ KJ/kg)\\E = 1130\ KJ[/tex]

Now, we will calculate the time required:

[tex]P = \frac{W}{t}\\\\t = \frac{W}{P}[/tex]

where,

t = time = ?

P = Power of kettle = 1 KW

Therefore,

[tex]t = \frac{1130\ KJ}{1 KW}\\\\[/tex]

t = 1130 s = 18.83 min

We get: Magnifying Power = -(2.85 m / 0.029 m) ≈ -98.28. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope can be calculated using the formula: Magnifying Power = -(fo/fe), where fo is the focal length of the objective (reflecting mirror) and fe is the focal length of the eyepiece.

Given that the radius of curvature of the reflecting mirror is 5.7 m, the focal length can be determined using the relation: Focal Length = Radius of Curvature / 2. So, the focal length of the objective is 5.7 m / 2 = 2.85 m.

Converting the focal length of the eyepiece to meters, we have 2.9 cm = 0.029 m.

Substituting the values into the magnifying power formula, we get: Magnifying Power = -(2.85 m / 0.029 m) ≈ -98.28

The negative sign indicates an inverted image, and the magnitude of the magnifying power suggests that the image appears 98.28 times larger than the object.

To know more about astronomical telescope, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31038565#

#SPJ11

When the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, the horizontal 0.35 meter diameter cast iron water pipe experiences a pressure drop (P) of roughly 16457.14 kPa every 100 meters.

To determine the pressure drop per 100-meter length of a horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, we can use the Darcy-Weisbach equation. The equation is as follows:

[tex]\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{f \cdot \frac{L}{D} \cdot (\rho \cdot V^2)}{2}[/tex]

where ΔP is the pressure drop, f is the Darcy friction factor, L is the length of the pipe (100 meters in this case), D is the diameter of the pipe (0.35 meters), ρ is the density of water, and V is the average velocity of water.

To calculate the pressure drop, we need to determine the Darcy friction factor. For a rough cast iron pipe, we can estimate the friction factor to be around 0.02.

Using the given values and the estimated friction factor, the calculation becomes:

[tex]\begin{equation}\Delta P = \frac{0.02 \cdot \frac{100}{0.35} \cdot (\rho \cdot 2.4^2)}{2}[/tex]

Since the density of water (ρ) is approximately 1000 kg/m³, we can substitute this value and calculate the pressure drop:

ΔP = [tex]\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}[/tex]

Let's solve the expression to calculate the pressure drop (ΔP) in kilopascals (kPa):

ΔP =  [tex]\frac{0.02 \times \frac{100}{0.35} \times 1000 \times 2.4^2}{2}[/tex]

First, let's simplify the expression:

ΔP = [tex]\frac{0.02 \times (285.714) \times (1000 \times 5.76)}{2}[/tex]

   = 16457.14

Therefore, the pressure drop (ΔP) per 100-meter length of the horizontal 0.35-meter diameter cast iron water pipe, when the average velocity is 2.4 m/s, is approximately 16457.14 kPa.

To know more about the cast iron water pipe refer here :

https://brainly.com/question/32455854#

#SPJ11

Complete question :

Determine the pressure drop per 100 -m length of horizontal new 0.35−m-diameter cast iron water pipe when the average velocity 2.4 m/s. Δp= kPa

If lens 1 from part d were placed in exactly the same location as lens 2, the image produced by lens 1 would be larger than the image produced by lens 2.

The reason is that the magnification produced by a lens depends on the ratio of the image distance to the object distance.

The larger the ratio, the larger the magnification.

Therefore, if lens 1 were placed in the same location as lens 2, it would produce a larger image because lens 1 has a shorter focal length and will bring the image closer to the lens than lens 2.

This will result in a larger image than that produced by lens 2.

Learn more about the lens:

brainly.com/question/28039799

#SPJ11

Answer:

did you find the answer please answer back

Answer:a

Explanation:ap ex verified

The resonance angular frequency (ω0) of the circuit is approximately 3615 radians per second. The maximum voltage amplitude (Vmax) that the source can have without exceeding the maximum capacitor voltage is 570 volts.

Part A:

The resonance angular frequency ω0 of the circuit can be calculated using the formula:

ω0 = 1 / √(LC)

Inductance (L) = 0.380 H

Capacitance (C) = 2.00×10^(-2) μF = 2.00×10^(-8) F

Converting the capacitance to farads:

C = 2.00×10^(-8) F

Plugging the values into the formula, we get:

ω0 = 1 / √(0.380 * 2.00×10^(-8))

   = 1 / √(7.6×10^(-9))

   = 1 / (2.76×10^(-4))

   ≈ 3615 rad/s

Therefore, the resonance angular frequency ω0 of the circuit is approximately 3615 radians per second.

Part B:

To determine the maximum voltage amplitude Vmax that the source can have without exceeding the maximum capacitor voltage, we need to consider the relationship between the voltage across the capacitor (Vc) and the voltage across the source (Vs) in an L-R-C series circuit.

At resonance, the voltage across the capacitor (Vc) is maximum, and the voltage across the inductor (VL) and resistor (VR) is minimum.

In this case, the maximum voltage across the capacitor is equal to the maximum voltage across the source.

Peak voltage withstand by the capacitor = 570 V

Therefore, the maximum voltage amplitude (Vmax) that the source can have without exceeding the maximum capacitor voltage is 570 V.

To know more about capacitor visit:

https://brainly.com/question/21851402

#SPJ11

The energy contained in a 1.0 m length of the beam from a 7.7 mW laser is 7.7 μJ (microjoules).

To calculate the energy contained in the length of the laser beam, we need to use the power of the laser and the formula:

Energy = Power × Time

However, we don't have the time information here. To proceed, we'll assume a continuous wave laser where the power remains constant over time.

Given:

Power of the laser = 7.7 mW (milliwatts)

Length of the beam = 1.0 m

First, we need to convert the power from milliwatts to watts:

7.7 mW = 7.7 × 10^(-3) W

Next, we can calculate the energy using the formula:

Energy = Power × Time

Since we assume a continuous wave laser, we can rearrange the formula as:

Energy = Power × Time = Power × (1 second)

Plugging in the values:

Energy = (7.7 × 10^(-3) W) × (1 second)

The time in this case is 1 second because we assume a continuous beam over that duration. Multiplying the power by 1 second doesn't change the value.

Finally, we can calculate the energy:

Energy = (7.7 × 10^(-3) W) × (1 second)

= 7.7 × 10^(-3) J (joules)

Since the joule is a relatively large unit, it's common to express small energy values in smaller units such as microjoules (μJ).

Converting from joules to microjoules:

1 J = 10^6 μJ

Therefore,

Energy = 7.7 × 10^(-3) J

= 7.7 × 10^(-3) × 10^6 μJ

= 7.7 × 10^(3) μJ

= 7.7 μJ

The energy contained in a 1.0 m length of the beam from a 7.7 mW laser is 7.7 μJ (microjoules).

To learn more about energy, visit    

https://brainly.com/question/2003548

#SPJ11

The permeability of the iron is approximately 1.26 x 10^(-3) Tm/A. If the current through the solenoid is turned off and then restored to 10 A, the magnetic field inside the solenoid will not necessarily return to exactly 2.0 T.

The magnetic field inside a solenoid with an iron core can be calculated using the formula:

B = μ₀ * μᵣ * (N * I) / L

Where:

B is the magnetic field (2.0 T)

μ₀ is the permeability of free space (4π x 10^(-7) Tm/A)

μᵣ is the relative permeability of iron (unknown)

N is the number of turns of wire (100)

I is the current through the solenoid (10 A)

L is the length of the solenoid (25 cm = 0.25 m)

To find the relative permeability of iron (μᵣ), we rearrange the formula:

μᵣ = (B * L) / (μ₀ * N * I)

Plugging in the given values:

μᵣ = (2.0 T * 0.25 m) / (4π x 10^(-7) Tm/A * 100 * 10 A)

   ≈ 1.26 x 10^(-3) Tm/A

Therefore, the permeability of the iron is approximately 1.26 x 10^(-3) Tm/A.

If the current through the solenoid is turned off and then restored to 10 A, the magnetic field inside the solenoid will not necessarily return to exactly 2.0 T.

The relationship between the magnetic field and the current is given by the formula mentioned earlier, and it depends on the permeability of the iron.

If the permeability changes or if there are other factors affecting the magnetic field, the value may vary.

However, if the iron remains unchanged and no other factors significantly affect the magnetic field, it is reasonable to expect that the field will return close to 2.0 T when the current is restored.

To know more about solenoid visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1873362

#SPJ11

(a) To find the force that will stretch a similar piece of wire to 1.87 cm, we can use the concept of Hooke's Law. Hooke's Law states that the force required to stretch or compress a spring (or wire) is directly proportional to the displacement or change in length.

Given that the original force is 17.0 N and it stretches the wire by 0.650 cm, we can set up a proportion to find the force required for a 1.87 cm stretch.

Let F1 be the original force, x1 be the original displacement, F2 be the unknown force, and x2 be the desired displacement. The proportion can be expressed as:

F1 / x1 = F2 / x2

Substituting the given values, we have:

17.0 N / 0.650 cm = F2 / 1.87 cm

Now we can solve for F2:

F2 = (17.0 N / 0.650 cm) * 1.87 cm

F2 ≈ 48.8 N

Therefore, a force of approximately 48.8 N will stretch a similar piece of wire to 1.87 cm.

(b) To determine how far a similar piece of wire will stretch when a force of 21.3 N is applied, we can use Hooke's Law again.

Using the same variables as before, the proportion can be set up as:

F1 / x1 = F2 / x2

Substituting the given values:

17.0 N / 0.650 cm = 21.3 N / x2

Solving for x2:

x2 = (21.3 N / 17.0 N) * 0.650 cm

x2 ≈ 0.815 cm

Therefore, a force of 21.3 N will cause the wire to stretch approximately 0.815 cm.

To know more about force visit :

https://brainly.com/question/12785175

#SPJ11

The ranking of the  work done by the torque is a > b > c > d.

The work done by the torque is equal to the change in rotational kinetic energy of the body.

Mathematically, the formula for torque is given as;

τ = r.F sinθ = Iα

where;

The formula for angular acceleration is given as;

α = Δω / Δt

where;

Thus, the greater the change in angular speed, the greater the work done by the applied torque.

(a) Δω = 7 rad/s - (-3 rad/s) = 10 rad/s

(b) Δω = 7 rad/s - 3 rad/s = 4 rad/s

(c) Δω = -7 rad/s - (-3 rad/s) = -4 rad/s

(d) Δω = -7 rad/s - 3 rad/s =  -10 rad/s

The ranking, a > b > c > d

Learn more about work done here: https://brainly.com/question/8119756

#SPJ4

The false statement about Zoroastrianism is both Ahurda Mazda and Angra Mainyu are considered gods. In Zoroastrianism, Ahura Mazda is considered the supreme deity and the embodiment of good, while Angra Mainyu (also known as Ahriman) represents the embodiment of evil and is not considered a god.

Zoroastrianism is an ancient Iranian religion founded by the prophet Zoroaster (or Zarathustra). It originated in Persia (modern-day Iran) and played a significant role in the development of Persian culture and civilization. Zoroastrianism promotes the belief in the existence of one supreme deity, Ahura Mazda, who represents goodness, truth, and light. The religion also recognizes the presence of destructive forces, personified by Angra Mainyu, representing evil and darkness. Zoroastrianism emphasizes the eternal struggle between these opposing forces and the importance of choosing good over evil. The faith does not impose itself on individuals but allows people to freely accept or reject its teachings.

To know more about zoroastrianism, click here https://brainly.com/question/8148348

#SPJ11

The resistance of the wire is 0.6 ohms. The magnitude of the electric field in the wire is 0.75 V/m.

To find the resistance of the wire, we can use Ohm's Law, which states that the resistance (R) is equal to the ratio of the potential difference (V) across a conductor to the current (I) flowing through it:

R = V / I

Given that the potential difference V is 1.5 V and the current I is 2.5 A, we can calculate the resistance:

R = 1.5 V / 2.5 A = 0.6 Ω

Therefore, the resistance of the wire is 0.6 ohms.

To find the magnitude of the electric field in the wire, we can use the relationship between the electric field (E), potential difference (V), and distance (d). For a uniform electric field in a straight wire, the electric field is given by:

E = V / d

Given that the potential difference V is 1.5 V and the length of the wire (distance) d is 2.0 m, we can calculate the magnitude of the electric field:

E = 1.5 V / 2.0 m = 0.75 V/m

Therefore, the magnitude of the electric field in the wire is 0.75 V/m.

To know more about electric fields follow

https://brainly.com/question/30470913

#SPJ4

The types of telescopes that will be able to detect flux from objects when located on Earth include optical telescopes, radio telescopes, and infrared telescopes.

Optical Telescopes: Optical telescopes are specifically designed to gather and focus visible light, enabling the detection of flux from astronomical objects. They come in two main types: refracting telescopes, which use lenses to gather and focus light, and reflecting telescopes, which use mirrors to capture and direct light to a detector or eyepiece.

Radio Telescopes: Radio telescopes detect and analyze radio waves emitted by astronomical objects. They are designed to capture a wide range of radio frequencies and are crucial for studying celestial sources that emit primarily in the radio part of the electromagnetic spectrum. By analyzing the received signals, astronomers can study phenomena such as pulsars, quasars, and cosmic microwave background radiation.

To learn more about telescopes, Click here:

https://brainly.com/question/31169822

#SPJ11

Option (b) is the correct answer: the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.

Gay-Lussac's law, also known as the pressure law, states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming the volume and amount of gas remain constant. Therefore, an increase in temperature leads to an increase in pressure. The explanation for this phenomenon lies in the kinetic theory of gases.

According to the kinetic theory, the temperature of a gas is related to the average kinetic energy of its molecules. When the temperature increases, the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules also increases. As a result, the gas molecules move with higher velocities and collide more frequently with the walls of the container.

The frequency of molecular collisions with the container walls is directly related to the pressure exerted by the gas. When the gas molecules strike the walls more often due to increased kinetic energy, the pressure exerted by the gas increases.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer: the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because the molecules strike the walls of the container more often.

An increase in temperature causes the pressure of a gas to increase because the gas molecules collide more frequently with the walls of the container, as explained by Gay-Lussac's law and the kinetic theory of gases.

To know more about molecules visit:

https://brainly.com/question/1078183

#SPJ11

The given statement '' A binary phase diagram indicates the phases of two elements (at least one of which is metallic) as a function of composition and temperature at atmospheric pressure '' is True.

A binary phase diagram is a graphical representation that shows the phases of two elements, at least one of which is metallic, as a function of composition and temperature at a specific pressure, typically atmospheric pressure.

The diagram displays different regions representing the stability of different phases (such as solid, liquid, and gas) as the composition and temperature of the system are varied. It is a valuable tool in understanding the behavior and phase transitions in binary systems.

Hence, The given statement '' A binary phase diagram indicates the phases of two elements (at least one of which is metallic) as a function of composition and temperature at atmospheric pressure '' is True.

To know more about binary phase diagram here

https://brainly.com/question/31949917

#SPJ4

Answer:

the velocity component parallel to the magnetic field vector

Explanation:

When a charged particle moves in a helical path, we can decompose its velocity into two parts v_parallel and v_perpendicular to the magnetic field.

Let's analyze which component receives a force

            F = q vxB

the bold letters indicate vectors, in the vector product if the two vectors are parallel the angle is zero and the sin 0 = 0 for which there is no force. therefore the velocity parallel to the field remains constant

If the two vectors are perpendicular, the angle is 90º and the sin 90 = 1, for which there is a force, which has a radial direction and consequently a centripetal acceleration that gives a circular path that does not remove the particle from the magnetic field

When checking the different answers, the correct one is: the velocity component parallel to the magnetic field vector