When the 2 genes in a pair are identical it's called?

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Answer 1

In genetics, homozygous means having inherited the same versions (alleles) of a genomic marker from both biological parents. As a result, a person who is homozygous for a genetic marker has two identical copies of that marker.

Each allele pair indicates the genotype of a single gene. Homozygous genotypes have two identical alleles at a certain locus, while heterozygous genotypes have two different alleles.

Synapsis. The pairing of two homologous chromosomes that occurs during meiosis is known as synapsis. This occurs during the prophase of meiosis I.

When homologous chromosomes pair, the homologous chromosomes cross across and exchange genetic material at certain places. This is known as crossing over.

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Related Questions

What are the three main patterns of settlement in Western Europe?

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The Climatic, Economic, Physical, and Traditional Factors other are the settlement in Western Europe.

In order to higher categorize which elements in the long run have an effect on agreement, geographers have usually typical 4 umbrella phrases to explain those elements: climatic, economic, physical, and traditionalThe 4 foremost sorts of settlements are urban, rural, compact, and dispersed.

Urban settlements are densely populated and are generally non-agricultural. They are referred to as towns or metropolises and are the maximum populated form of agreement. These settlements absorb the maximum land, resources, and services.The 3 foremost styles of agreement are linear, scattered, and clustered.

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a condition when the coronary arteries are blocked thus preventing oxygenated blood from circulating within the heart is called:

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A condition when the coronary arteries are blocked thus preventing oxygenated blood from circulating within the heart is called chronic total occlusion (CTO).

A chronic total occlusion (CTO) is a blockage in your coronary corridors, the veins that supply blood to your heart. Plaque, a fatty substance that builds up and narrows your arteries, typically causes blockage. If you have coronary artery disease, your risk of developing a CTO is higher.

Coronary artery disease (CAD) patients are more likely to experience chronic total occlusions. One in three people who suffer from CAD also has a CTO. A common heart condition is coronary artery disease. Coronary arteries, the major blood vessels that supply the heart, struggle to deliver sufficient blood, oxygen, and nutrients to the heart muscle.

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What solute is found in plasma?

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Plasma contains more than 90% water. The remainder is primarily made up of dissolved solutes like glucose, lipids, electrolytes, and dissolved gases, as well as plasma proteins, primarily albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

What are the three dissolved substances in plasma?

Essential components including water, salt, and enzymes are also present in plasma. These also include antibodies and coagulation components like albumin and fibrinogen.

Does plasma contain any dissolved solutes?

Plasma proteins, electrolytes (including sodium, potassium, and calcium), dissolved gases (like oxygen and carbon dioxide), and organic nutrients are among the dissolved solutes that can be found in plasma (such as glucose, amino acids, lipids).

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Select the statements that accurately characterize T-cell activation.

a. CD8+ cells are stimulated by antigen bound to MHC I molecules.
b. T helper cells play a role in B-cell activation.
c. CD4+ cells are stimulated by antigen bound to MHC II molecules.
d. TH17 cells lead to the development of inflammatory reactions.
e. Activation of CD4+ T cells leads to the development of TC cells only.

Answers

that precisely describe the activation of T cells. Antigen that has been attached to MHC I receptors stimulates CD8+ lymphocytes. In the stimulation of B-cells, T helper cells are involved. The formation of inflammatory responses is facilitated by Il-17.

When tissues are harmed by infection, trauma, toxins, heat, or really any cause, the inflammatory response (also known as inflammation) takes place. Chemicals like histamine, cholecystokinin, and prostaglandins are released by injured cells. These substances promote inflammation by spurting blood capillaries to bleed water into the tissues. organisms pathogens such as bacteria, such as bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Explicit wounds such as scratches or injury with foreign items effects of radiation or chemicals

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Luis is studying agriscience in class and needs to list three challenges facing the agricultural industry today. Which of the
following would best complete his list? (5 points)
Challenges
• Water quality issues
• Climate change
O More farmers' markets opening
O Improvements in renewable energy
O Less available land to cultivate
O Decreasing world population

Answers

The world's expanding population, problems with water quality, and soil deterioration are some of the challenges that the agricultural industry is currently facing.

What is agriculture?

Agriculture is defined as the study or practice of farming, which includes preparing the land for plant growth as well as raising animals for their meat, wool, and other goods.

Climate change and soil degradation difficulties, which reduce the appropriateness of the land for crop cultivation, are the most frequent issues that agricultural industries encounter.

Thus, the world's expanding population, problems with water quality, and soil deterioration are some of the challenges that the agricultural industry is currently facing.

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C. Less available land to cultivate.

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the most common type of regenerated fiber, which is derived from cellulose and is mostly plant in origin, is rayon.T/F

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Correct answer is :- TRUE

It is true that rayon, which is derived from cellulose and has a largely plant-based origin, is the most popular type of regenerated fiber. this is due to the cellulose-based fibers used in the plastic polymer strings, all of which start with oil products. Polyester resembles fiber in some ways, however it is easily destroyed by sunlight and strong acids.

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PEA PLANT PUNNETT SQUARE WORKSHEET 1) Yellow seeds are dominant over green seeds in pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous recessive and homozygous dominant parents. Y Y y Yy Yy y Yy Yy Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 2) Green pod color is dominant over yellow pod color in pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous dominant and heterozygous parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: __________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: ________ 3) Round seeds are dominant over wrinkled seeds in pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous recessive and heterozygous parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 4) Smooth pod shape is dominant over constricted pod shape in pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous recessive and homozygous dominant parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 5) Tall pea plants are dominant over short pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing heterozygous and heterozygous dominant parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 6) The axial flower position is dominant over the terminal flower position. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing heterozygous and homozygous dominant parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 7) Gray seed coat color is dominant over white seed coat color. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous dominant and homozygous dominant parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________ 8) Tall pea plants are dominant over short pea plants. Fill in the Punnett square and determine the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios from crossing homozygous recessive and homozygous recessive parents. Genotypes: __________________________ Genotypic Ratio: _________ Phenotypes: _________________________ Phenotypic Ratio: _________

Answers

Phenotypic ratios 1)1:0 yellow : green 2) 1:0 green : yellow 3) 1:1 4) 1:0 smooth constricted 5) 3:1 tall : short 6) 1:0 Axial : terminal 7) 1:0 grey : white 8)0:1 tall : short

Phenotypic ratios are quantitative relationships between phenotypes that illustrate how frequently one phenotype is correlated with another. Researchers utilise the phenotypic ratio derived from a test cross to determine the gene expression for generations of an organism. The ratio of various phenotypes that are present in the progeny of a cross is known as the phenotypic ratio. Ratios are comparisons in numbers. The ratio of apples to oranges, for instance, would be 3:2 if someone possessed three apples and two oranges. It is projected that a cross between two heterozygous F1 hybrids will result in offspring with a 1:2:1 ratio of genotypes to phenotypes for that trait.

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What is cancer and how does it relate to the cell cycle and mitosis?

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Cancer is related to the cell cycle and mitosis because by drilling down to the atomic level of how specific proteins interact during mitosis, a a unique new target for attacking cancer is found.

Mitosis is a type of cell division in which one cell( the mama ) divides to produce two new cells( the daughters) that are genetically identical to itself. In the environment of the cell cycle, mitosis is the part of the division process in which the DNA of the cell's nexus is resolve into two equal sets of chromosomes.

Cancer is a term for conditions in which abnormal cells divide without control and can incursion near apkins. Cancer cells can also spread to other corridor of the body through the blood and lymph systems. There are several main types of cancer.

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Why adenine and thymine have 2 hydrogen bonds while guanine and cytosine have 3 hydrogen bonds?

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These pairings take place because of the geometry of the bases, which only permits hydrogen bonds to form between certain pairs. While cytosine and guanine will make three hydrogen bonds, adenine and thymine will only form two.

As a result of the alignment of adenine and thymine, a hydrogen bond can develop between the exocyclic amino group at C6 on adenine and the carbonyl at C4 in thymine, as well as between N1 of adenine and N3 of thymine. Hence a total of two hydrogen bonds are possible .Because the exocyclic NH2 at C2 on guanine stands opposite to and can form a hydrogen bond with a carbonyl at C2 on cytosine, the base pair of guanine and cytosine possesses three hydrogen bonds.

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How many mm are capillaries?

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Capillaries are about 5-10 micrometers in diameter.

             1 micrometer = 10-6m = 10-3mm

A capillary is a small blood vessel. They are the smallest blood vessels in the body which convey blood between arterioles and venules.  

There are 10 billion capillaries in the human body. The average length of capillary is based on certain measurements is about 0.23mm. Capillaries are delicate blood vessels, and they transport nutrients, blood and oxygen to cells in your organs and body system. The smallest blood vessels in human vascular system are capillaries. Capillaries are often referred to as micro circulation and they deliver oxygen and nutrients to all cells in the body and eliminate carbon dioxide. Generally, capillaries are of two types viz.

Continuous fenestratedContinuous non fenestrated.Continuous capillaries are the most common type of capillary in your body. These capillaries are made up of type of cells called endothelial cells. The networks of capillaries have meshes of varying size. In the lungs in the choroid – the middle coat of the eyeball – the spaces between capillaries are smaller than the vessels themselves while in the outer coat of arteries - the Lunica Advantica – the inter capillary spaces are about ten times greater than the diameter of the capillaries. In general, inter capillary spaces are smaller in growing parts, in the glands and in mucous membranes, larger in bones and ligaments and almost absent tendons.

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which statement is true regarding the activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl coa? a)feedback activation enhances flux through glycolysis. b)feedforward activation enhances the entry of pyruvate through the tca cycle as acetyl-coa. c)ensures that gluconeogenesis occurs rather than pyruvate conversion to acetyl-coa. d)ensures that atp is not wasted in the production of oxaloacetate. e)feedback inhibition

Answers

The statement that ensures that gluconeogenesis occurs rather than pyruvate conversion to acetyl-CoA is true regarding the activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA (Option C).

What is the process of gluconeogenesis?

The process of gluconeogenesis refers to a metabolic signaling pathway capable of generating glucose from non-carbohydrate compounds, which is in this case produced by the activation of pyruvate carboxylase via acetyl CoA.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of gluconeogenesis can be achieved by activating the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA which participates in many reactions.

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Information for specifying the traits of an organism is carried in the DNA. Your teacher asked you to explain to the class how DNA code
produces genetic traits in organisms. What is the best explanation?

Answers

Answer:

DNA carries all of the information for your physical characteristics, which are essentially determined by proteins. So, DNA contains the instructions for making a protein. In DNA, each protein is encoded by a gene (a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides that specify how a single protein is to be made).

Explanation:

Protozoa are known for their cell walls.True or False? Amoeba can be parasitic. True or false Bacteria have cell walls: true or falseA cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from which of the following? A)a bacterium B)a plant, but not an animal C)either a plant or an animal D)an animal but not a plant E) any kind of organismAmoeba are: a) anaerobic organisms b) aerobic organismsA cellular diameter of 40 micrometers is equivalent to: (a)0.4mm (b)0.04mm (c)40nm (d).4cmHow does the composition of bacterial cell walls differ from that of plant cell walls? a)Bacteria have an extensive network of crosslinked teichoic acids in their cell walls, while plant cell walls are composed primarily of cellulose b)Bacteria have cell walls composed of peptidoglycan, while plant cell walls are composed primarily of cellulose. c)Both plants and bacteria have cell walls composed of cellulose; the cellulose fibers are more extensively crosslinked in bacteria than in plant cells. d)Bacteria have cell walls composed of chitin, while plant cell walls are composed primarily of cellulose.Chloroplasts enables the Euglena to be photoautotrophic? true or falseA Trypanosome is a(n): a) Ciliate b) euglenozoan c) Brown algae d)loboseAmoebozoan aramecium are prey for: a)other protists. b)bacteria. c)other species of Paramcium d)land animals.Which of the following protozoa are parasites?a)Euglena b)Paramecium caudatum c)Trypanosoma cruzi d) Amoeba proteus e)Giardia intestinalis f) Plasmodium falciparum

Answers

The following are the answer to the given microorganisms related questions:

Cell walls of protozoa are well-known for this. (False)

Parasitic amoeba are possible. (True)

Cell walls exist in bacteria. (True)

Enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria are just a few of the chemicals and structures found in a cell. It might be: (C) either an animal or a plant.

An amoeba is: aerobic organisms (b)

40 micrometre cellular diameter is equivalent to: (b) 0.04mm

The Euglena is able to be photoautotrophic thanks to chloroplasts. (True)

A (n) trypanosome is: b) Prey species for euglenozoan Amoebozoan aramecium include: b) Parasites are bacteria and protozoa: Trypanosoma cruzi and Plasmodium falciparum are parasites.

Bacterial cell walls different from plant cell walls in composition

Ans- (b) Cell walls of bacteria are made of peptidoglycan, whereas cellulose predominates in plant cell walls.

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1. Experimental results are compared against
the results of controls. How can controls
improve an experiment? sc.6.N.1.3
Aby ensuring that the experiment tests
only one variable
B by allowing for the experiment to test as
many variables as possible
D
by making sure everything in the
experiment remains constant
by guaranteeing that the experimental
outcome verifies the hypothesis

Answers

How do controls improve an experiment?

Not only do controls establish a baseline that the results of an experiment can be compared to, they also allow researchers to correct for possible errors. If something goes wrong in the experiment, a scientist can check on the controls of the experiment to see if the error had to do with the controls.

In your case your anwser:  B. by allowing for the experiment to test as many variables as possible

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How is a plaque similar to a bacterial colony?

Answers

Plaque similar to bacterial colony 1 virus replicates in a host and expands outwards to infect more and more cells germs multiply, spreading outward no bacterial lawn after one week of incubation; only dead cells No, a temperate phage.

Bacteriophage tail fibres attach to the proteins in cell walls. The host cell is infused with viral DNA. No coating is necessary. Lysogeny, cytoplasmic biosynthesis. lysing of the host cell. 2) Wildlife Plasma membrane proteins and glycoproteins serve as attachment sites. Capsid entry is mediated by receptor fusion or endocytosis. Enzymatic elimination of capsid proteins during uncoating. Biosynthesis in the cytoplasm or nucleus (DNA viruses) Cancer, sluggish viral infections, and latency. Nonenveloped viruses burst plasma membrane after being released through an enveloped virus' bud out.

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A couple has adopted three children from Korea and reared them in a loving home--two of the children are MZ twins and the third is unrelated to the first two. As adults, researchers find that a correlation of .6 on various personality characteristics between the MZ twins. Which of the following correlations would the researchers expect to find between the MZ twins and their adopted sister?
Select one:
a. .6
b. -.3
c. .3
d. .0

Answers

Answer:

d,becouse the researchers do not expect to find any thing.

sometime in the not-too-distant future, a catastrophic event ends the world as we know it, leaving only one population of 20,000 humans in north america. we sample a neutrally evolving locus with only two alleles, and find that the a1a1 genotype occurs in 7200 people. what is the expected number of people that are heterozygous at this allele, assuming hardy-weinberg equilibrium? group of answer choices 3,200 7,200 9,600 12,000 12,800

Answers

According to hardy-weinberg equilibrium, 12,000 persons should be heterozygous for this gene.

How are the anticipated heterozygotes determined?

In relation to allele frequency, p, expected heterozygosity (Hexp = 2pq) for a 2-allele system is shown. The heterozygosity reaches its apex at a value of 0.5 when the allele frequencies are equal (p=q). At both ends, it is negligible because everyone is a homozygote of one type or the other.

How is heterozygous calculated by Hardy-Weinberg?

The proportion of heterozygous people is equivalent to 2pq. In this instance, 2pq is 0.32, which indicates that 32% of people are heterozygous for this gene (2 (0.8)(0.2) = 0.32).

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The adequate stimulus for your auditory sense is

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The following provides a sufficient audio stimulus: Vibration in a carrying medium serves as an appropriate stimulus for audition. We can hear underwater and via our skulls in addition to the usual conducting medium of air.

The correct physical domain of the sensory system under study is where the stimuli come from, therefore sounds are adequate stimulus for the auditory system and smells are adequate for the olfactory bulb. Light and light contrasts provide the visual system with the necessary stimulus. Audition. The following provides a sufficient audio stimulus: Vibration in a carrying medium serves as an appropriate stimulus for audition. We can hear underwater and via our skulls in addition to the usual conducting medium of air.The basic sensory receptor cells in the inner ear, known as hair cells, transduce, or change into electrical impulses that are sent to the brain, mechanical sensations generated by sound and head motions. The type and amount of energy needed to excite a particular sensory organ is the appropriate stimulus. Numerous sensory stimuli are divided into groups based on how they work and what they're used for.

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Where is the organized form of DNA?

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Chromosome is the final organized form of DNA which is present within the nucleus.

Cells enclose their DNA strands all over scaffolding proteins to construct chromatin, a coiled compressed structure inside the nucleus. Chromatin is hence rolled up into higher powers of structure, resulting in the distinctive shape of chromosomes.

The DNA molecule is encapsulated into thread-like structures known as chromosomes in the nucleus of each cell. Each chromosome is composed of DNA that has been tightly coiled many times around proteins known as histones that support its structure. Chromatin coils tightly and compresses to create chromosomes when a cell is poised to divide.

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What is the specific purpose of meiosis 1?

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The specific purpose of meiosis 1 is to reduce the chromosome number by half in order to produce haploid reproductive cells from a diploid cell.

What is a Diploid cell?

A diploid cell is a cell that contains two sets of chromosomes, one set inherited from each parent. Diploid cells are the basic structural unit of life for all living organisms. These cells are responsible for growth, repair, and reproduction.

What is meiosis 1?

Meiosis 1 is the first part of meiosis, a type of cell division that produces gametes (sex cells) for sexual reproduction. Meiosis 1 consists of two successive divisions of the cell's nucleus, resulting in four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the original cell. During meiosis 1, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material, a process known as crossing over. The resulting cells are haploid, meaning they contain only one copy of each chromosome.

This process involves the separation of homologous chromosomes, which are pairs of chromosomes that contain the same genes.

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What is the name of the process where adaptations that are beneficial for survival in a particular environment get passed on to offspring?

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The name of the process where adaptations that are beneficial for survival in a particular environment get passed on to offspring is called Natural selection.

Natural selection is the mechanism through which living creature populations adapt and change People in a population are naturally diverse, which means they vary in certain ways.

This variation shows that some persons are more environment-adapted than others in terms of their personal traits. Individuals that possess adaptive features (traits that provide them an advantage) are more likely to live and reproduce.

Individuals then pass on their adaptive characteristics to their children. These beneficial features grow increasingly widespread in the population over time. Natural selection ensures that beneficial traits are handed down across generations.

Natural selection can result in speciation, which occurs when one species gives rise to a new and separate species. It is one of the mechanisms that drives evolution and contributes to our understanding of the variety of life on Earth.

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Vitamin e's primary function is as _______ that neutralizes potentially harmful free radicals in the body.

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Vitamin E's primary function is as an antioxidant that neutralizes potentially harmful free radicals in the body.

Vitamin E is made up of eight fat-soluble compounds, four of which are tocopherols and four of which are tocotrienols. Vitamin E deficiency, which is uncommon and usually caused by an underlying problem with dietary fat digestion rather than a low vitamin E diet, can cause nerve problems.

Nausea, fatigue, headache, and bleeding are all possible side effects. When taken in doses greater than 1000 mg per day, vitamin E may be hazardous. When applied to the skin, vitamin E is most likely safe for the majority of people. Vitamin E is an essential nutrient for vision, reproduction, and the health of your blood, brain, and skin. Vitamin E has antioxidant properties as well. Sunflower seeds, almonds, spinach, avocados, squash, kiwifruit, trout, shrimp, olive oil, wheat germ oil, and broccoli are all high in vitamin E.

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describe what is the difference of protein coagulation mechanism (specifically casein) between yogurt and cheese making? (think about what caused casein to coagulate during these two procedure, and describe in detail)

Answers

Yogurt

Produced by milk fermentationLactic acid provides the tangy flavor in Yogurt Bacteria will ferment sugars in milk to produce lactic acid. therefore mixture become acidicHigher acidity solidifies the casein proteins

Cheese

Produced by  acidification of milkbacteria provide the taste in cheese.coagulation of casein protein in milk separatingthe milk into solid curds and liquid whey. liquid whey is drained away, and the curds are salted, shaped and left to ripen in a controlled environment.Casein molecules have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions in the molecules.This leads to formation of micelles.Micelles are globular round structures which float around in milk.

Coagulation is done by

Lower the pH ( by the addition of an acid or by the addition of micro organisms that make acids) Addition of enzymeThese two  causes the stable micelles to lose stability and curdle into larger aggregates.The lower pH will destabilize the casein micelles and cause them to aggregate.They will form clumps which catch the fat and which will form the final cheeseEnzymes change the size of the proteins.

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What is the most common theme of haiku?

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Feelings about Nature are the most common theme of haiku.

A haiku is a type of poetry from Japan that dates back to the ninth century. There are three lines in a haiku. The standard metric for haiku is 5-7-5, but modern haiku rarely adhere to that format.

The primary purpose of haiku poems is to convey feelings about nature. Time, nature, emotions, and other topics were addressed in traditional poems. They are intended to be instructive for the readers. The Western Haiku, on the other hand, deals with anything that could be a subject. Poems cover a wide range of topics, including houses, drainages, dogs, and cats. However, serious poets make a concerted effort to adhere strictly to the Japanese Haiku format.

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Is cystic fibrosis caused by deletion mutation?

Answers

Yes, cystic fibrosis caused by deletion mutation.

What are deletion mutations?

A deletion mutation occurs when a wrinkle forms on the DNA template strand and subsequently causes a nucleotide to be omitted from the replicated strand.

It is a type of frameshift mutation characterized by the loss of one or more nucleotides from the segment of DNA. Example of deletion mutation is DiGeorge syndrome.

Deletions occur when there is homologous but unequal recombination between gene sequences. Similar sequences in the human genome can cross over during mitosis or meiosis, resulting in a shortened portion of the gene sequence.

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Theres no science option so I put it in this category.
Drag the item from the item bank to its corresponding match.

Answers

change of velocity per time is acceleration

measure of quantity of matter is mass

measured value is distance

time is the first one

resistance to effort force is velocity

extracellular endolymph surrounding the organ of corti contains fluid: a) high in potassium and low in sodium b) high in potassium and sodium c) low in potassium and high in sodium d) low in potassium and sodium

Answers

The high in potassium and low in sodium is theextracellular endolymph surrounding the organ of corti contains fluid.

Endolymph, additionally called Scarpa fluid, is a clean fluid which could discovered withinside the membranous labyrinth of the internal ear. It is particular in composition as compared to different extracellular fluids withinside the frame because of its excessive potassium ion concentration (one hundred forty mEq/L) and coffee sodium ion concentration (15 mEq/L).

Note that simplest the floor of the organ of Corti is bathed in endolymph (significantly the stereocilia of the hair cells), at the same time as the primary frame of hair cells and guide cells are bathed in perilymph. There are varieties of perilymph: the perilymph of the scala vestibuli, and that of the scala tympani.

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Increasing corticotropin-releasing factor levels will likely ___________________. Select all that apply.

decrease adrenocorticotropic hormone levels
increase thyroid hormone levels
increase cortisol levels
increase adrenocorticotropic hormone levels
inhibit anterior pituitary activity

Answers

Increasing corticotropin-releasing factor levels will likely increase adrenocorticotropic hormone levels.

The tiny gland located near the base of the brain known as the pituitary produces the hormone ACTH. One other hormone, cortisol, is produced under the influence of ACTH. The two tiny glands called the adrenal glands, which are situated above the kidneys, produce cortisol.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulates the release of cortisol from your adrenal glands as its primary purpose. A vital hormone, cortisol has an impact on practically all of the organs and tissues in your body.

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What type of asexual reproduction is snail?

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However, some hermaphrodite snails reproduce asexually. In other words, the snail fertilises its own egg with its own sperm.

Some hermaphrodite snails can reproduce on their own without the help of another snail (this is called asexual reproduction). Even though some snails are hermaphrodites, they still require a partner to procreate (this is called sexual reproduction). Nerite snails do not reproduce asexually, unlike the majority of aquatic snails. Similar to fish, a female nerite snail will lay eggs that the male will fertilise. The developing larvae will then be dispersed throughout the tank with the eggs.

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16 - Albinism: From Genotype to Phenotype Going through the motions...Genotypes to Phenotypes In this activity, you will observe a normal gene and compare it to three (3) mutated sequences. By transcribing and translating cach gene sequence, you will determine both where the mutation is located and what type of mutation has occurred. Finally, you will determine how the gene was changed and how it affected the person's phenotype. Procedure: 1) Each student will analyse one of four genes on the back of this sheet: TYR, OCA2, TYRP-1, or SLCASA2 Each student will have a different gene and be responsible for reporting their findings to the other group members 2) Fach form has an original DNA strand and 3 different mutated strandt. For cach, you will transcribe the mRNA sequence and then translate the mRNA into the amino acid sequence (AA). 3) With a colored pencil, you will then do the following . First, circle the mutation() on cach of the three mutared strands that differ from the original DNA strand at the top of your form. (Note: not all sequences start at beginning of gene.) . Second, lightly shade over cach codon that differs in the mRNA strand from the original mRNA strand at the top of your form • Lastly, lightly shade over each amino acid that differs in the amino acid sequence from the original amino acid sequence at the top of your form . Using the amino acid sequences match one of them to the "Individual" cards at your table to view phenotype. Once your analysis is complete, fill out the table below. Analysis: Making sense of your date Your gener Individuale Original DNA Strand Gene: TYR (OCA1) Name: Victoria Cell Gene affected Mutation Mutation 1 Mutation 2 Mutation 3 Mutation Type Cite your evidence here for mutation type Point Com AiN One codon was erected vi bine amino aciddathram Which of the above mutations caused a change in the phenotype? How did this change occur? Which mutation did not result in a change in the phenotype? 153 Zoo Genetics Key Aspects of Conservation Biology 154 Original DNA Strand Gene: TYR (OCA1) Name: DNA: TACGAGGACCGACAAAACATGACGGACGACACCTCAAAGGTCTGGAGGCGACCGGTAAAG mRNA: AUG CUCGT GU GUG VAC VOLG OG UGG AGU WC 016 Acc lucc Gcu 66 ya AAS: Met Lev Lev Ala Val Lev Terser Lev Lev Trp ser Phe bin. The ser Ala Gly His Phel Mutation 1 DNA: TACGAGGACCGACAAAACATGACGACGACACCTCAAAGGTCTGGAGGCGACCGGTAAAGG mRNA: AUG CUCING GOU GUU WG WAC UGCVGUGU GA GUNLU ALA CU GLUGGANU V AAS: Met Lev ev Ala Vall Lev Torsers us by Val ser Ang Pro Pro Lev Ala lhe ser Mutation 2 DNA: TACGAGGACCGACAAAACATGACGGACGACACCTCAAAGGTCTGGAGGCGACCGGTTAAG mRNA: AGUNG GOUGOU WG VALUGU GUGUGO AGO W LAGAO ULL LOGU UW AAs: Met Lev Lev Ala Val Lev Torser Lev Lev Tre ser the Gin Thy sev nia Gry Gin Phel Zoo Genetics:Key Aspects of Conservation Biology Mutation 3 DNA: TACGAGAACCGACAAAACATGACGGACGACACCTCAAAGGTCTGGAGGCGACCGGTAAAG mRNA: AG CUCUG GU GU UGLALUGU LUG CUL UDGAU CUGAC VEL 6 GC G AAS: Met Lev Lev Ala Val Lev Torser hev Lev Trp Ser the inhhr ser Ala Gly His Phe

Answers

The phenotype is affected by mutations 1 and 2 because in the first, the complete protein is altered, and in the second, the new amino acid may cause the protein to have altered or no function.

What is Mutation?

Mutations can happen naturally or as a result of UV rays, congenital conditions, ionic radiations, or specific free radicals.

Even with the point mutation, there is no alteration to the amino acid sequence, hence the protein will not be affected.

In mutation 1, a new nucleotide is added at codon 9, changing the whole sequence of amino acids and codons in the process,  mutation frameshift.

Because a new codon was created as a result of the substitution of one nucleotide by another in mutation 2, produced a new amino acid, so Point mutation.

Therefore, in mutation 3, one nucleotide is swapped out for another, and the resulting codon codes the same amino acid as the one before it, so point mutation.

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