Answer:
neutrophils
Explanation:
trust me bro
Choose among the following the most important
lab finding in nephrotic syndrome-
a) B-J protein
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypoalbuminemia
d) Hypertension
The lab finding in nephrotic syndrome is Hypoalbuminemia. Thus, option "C" is correct.
What is Nephrotic syndrome?Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by the excretion of too much protein in the urine.
It is usually caused by damage to the glomeruli in the kidneys. In nephrotic syndrome, the glomeruli are affected by an inflammation that allows proteins such as albumin, antithrombin or immunoglobulins to pass through the cell membrane and appear in urine (usually they don’t appear). Nephrotic syndrome causes swelling (oedema), usually in the feet and ankles, and increases the risk of other health problems.
Thus, option "C" is correct.
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Would a lump sum payment per year prevent those activities restricted under the CFMA?
No, the lump sum payment per year will not prevent those activities restricted under the CFMA.
What is CFMA?This is referred to as Construction Financial Management Association and serves the needs of construction and other related services.
Lump payment won't prevent restrictions because paying physicians for every service isn't more cost effective via capitation based funding.
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Stephanie and randa are running partners. they are tracking their heart rates during their run. they are trying to keep their heart rate in the target heart rate zone. they stop their workout and check their pulse. they both have heart rates in the high 170s. they adjust their runs to lower their hr and it drops 20 beats per minute. which person is still in the target heart rate zone?
Since both Stephanie and Randa lower their rate by 20 beats per minute, both runners will still be in the target heart rate zone.
What is target heart rate zone?
The target heart rate zone is a term used to define a heart rate at which cardio exercises are to be done.
If both Stephanie and Randa with heart rate at high 170s and stopped to adjust their runs to lower it to 20 beats per minute.
Since both Stephanie and Randa lower their rate by 20 beats per minute, both runners will still be in the target heart rate zone.
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name as many clinical uses for mydriatic cycloplegic agents as you can
There are several uses of Mydriatics Cycloplegics such as dilation of the pupils, treatment of eye redness, etc.
What is Mydriatic Cycloplegic agents ?Mydriatics Cycloplegics are ophthalmic medications that are used for several clinical purposes such as the ones listed below.
Uses of Mydriatics CycloplegicsDilation of the pupils for diagnostic or surgical procedures.Treatment of eye redness.As part of the treatment for uveitis.Cataract and intraocular lens replacement surgery.Learn more about Mydriatics Cycloplegics here: https://brainly.com/question/27107213
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According to the USDA My Plate, someone who needs 2000 kcal/day should consume _____ cup(s) of milk or the equivalent in milk products each day.
According to the USDA Food guide, if you need 2000 kcal/day then consume three cups of milk or the equivalent in milk products each day.
What is USDA?This is known as United states department of agriculture and regulates food quality, labeling etc.
2000 kcal/day is equivalent to 3 cups of milk taken per day which is therefore the most appropriate choice.
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which type of sensory impairment is appropriate for a 4-year-old child who has difficulty processing...
Which finding is appropriate when identifying cognitive impairment in children?:
Delayed achievement of developmental milestones is a major clue to the presence of cognitive impairment in children. Children with Down syndrome or fragile X syndrome have dysmorphic features that make cognitive impairment easier to recognize. Abnormal eye contact, gross motor delay, decreased alertness to voice or movement, language difficulties, and feeding difficulties are all early behavioral signs of cognitive impairment.
You are having difficulty drawing blood from a patient and try two successive light-blue–stoppered citrate tubes for the collection of a PT test. Both tubes fill only half full. To avoid redrawing the patient, you pour one tube into the other to make a full tube and send it to the laboratory. Will this affect the test results?
The anticoagulant will be doubled in the tube and the results will be altered in this scenario.
What are Anticoagulant?These are substances which prevent the clotting of blood and are present in light-blue–stoppered citrate tubes.
When you pour one tube into the other, the anticoagulant will be doubled which will affect the result due to the presence of foreign substances in the tubes.
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During the angioplasty, the surgeon used a catheter to unblock an artery and reduce the patient's chances of a heart attack.
Which of the following is most likely the definition of angioplasty in the sentence above?
Select one:
a.a legal term used to identify a surgeon
b.a medical procedure used to open a blockage in a patient's heart
c.an educational term used to describe a political system
d.a manufacturing term used to describe a synthetic plastic mold
The following is most likely the definition of angioplasty in the sentence above is a medical procedure used to open a blockage in a patient's heart. Thus, option "B" is correct.
What is an aneurysm?It is caused due to weakness in blood vessel walls caused by a bulge in by flow of blood them. Its treatment options can include surgical clipping, endovascular coiling, etc.
In the treatment of an aneurysm, one cannot go for angioplasty because as the walls become weak, this can lead to a rupture in walls.
Thus, option "B" is correct.
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Answer: B.
Explanation:
The following is most likely the definition of angioplasty in the sentence above is a medical procedure used to open a blockage in a patient's heart. Thus, option "B" is correct.
What is an aneurysm?
It is caused due to weakness in blood vessel walls caused by a bulge in by flow of blood them. Its treatment options can include surgical clipping, endovascular coiling, etc.
In the treatment of an aneurysm, one cannot go for angioplasty because as the walls become weak, this can lead to a rupture in walls.
Thus, option "B" is correct.
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The client experienced complications leading to the need for an emergency cesarean birth using general anesthesia. What is the priority assessment for this client during the surgery
The priority assessment for this client during the surgery are circulatory and renal function assessments and fetal heart rate.
What is Caesarian section?
This is a surgical procedure which is done to deliver a baby through incisions in the abdominal region.
The assessments mentioned above will ensure there are no complications during the procedure.
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According to Clevette and colleagues, examples of unsafe, common disciplinary actions reviewed by boards of nursing include all of the following EXCEPT
Failure to implement safeguards to ensure patient confidentiality of patients protected health information aren't reviewed by boards of nursing.
Who is a Nurse?This is a healthcare professional who is involved in taking care of the patient so as to ensure quick recovery.
The nursing board deals with approval of nursing programs and also issues which may arise from direct relationship with the patient such as abuse so as to ensure the best hands are in the job.
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health journal should address only the specific target behavior rather than the circumstances around that behavior. Group of answer choices true false
A health journal should address only the specific target behavior rather than the circumstances around that behavior is false.
Which of the subsequent is an instance of fitness conduct?Actions that may be categorized as fitness behaviors are many; examples consist of smoking, substance use, diet, bodily activity, sleep, volatile activities, fitness care searching for behaviors, and adherence to prescribed clinical treatments.
A health journal is simplest as a conduct-alternate device whilst it addresses handiest the particular goal conduct instead of the instances around that conduct. support conventional marital roles. Conflict may be a signal that courting is growing.
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The doctor prescribed 100 mg, available is 1,000 mcg/0. 5 ml. How many ml should be administered to the patient?.
Answer:
50mLs
Explanation:
set it up as a dimensional analysis equations and cross off the units to get what you need which is mLs. After you put in the right ratios, you simply multiply everything on top across then divide it all by the bottom
Note: for every 1000mcg = 1mg (equivalence), same goes for 1000mg =1g, is the same bc of the distance between 2 units like kilograms to g but w/in kg there is 1 kg = 1000g
It is generally considered safe for a fetus in a woman who is pregnant to consume _______ oz. of alcohol per day.
A pregnant woman can consume one or two units of alcohol per week is considered safe.
How much alcohol is safe for pregnant woman?Health related guidelines suggest that if a woman is going to drink while pregnant she should limit it to one or two units of alcohol per week. Two units is equal to a medium of 175 ml glass of wine which is equals to 5 oz of alcohol.
So we can conclude that a pregnant woman can consume one or two units of alcohol per week.
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If a needle pokes your skin and results in instant bleeding, which skin layer has the needle reached
Answer:
It has reached the papillary layer
Explanation:
I hope this is helpful
A client is postoperative immediately following a total laryngectomy. the client's respirations are 32 breaths/minute, shallow, and noisy. the tracheostomy pad is moist with mucus. pulse oximetry is 88%. the client's eyes are wide open, and the client appears apprehensive. what is a priority nursing concern
Answer:
A priority nursing concern is the ineffective clearing of the airway.
Ventricular fibrillation is identified in a 50-year-old unresponsive client that just arrived in the ED via EMS. Which action do you take first
A person suddenly collapses while sitting in the sunroom of a healthcare facility. a healthcare provider observes the event and hurries over to assess the situation. the healthcare provider performs which assessment first
A systematic strategy to inspection is recommended. A fast assessment should be performed initially by the healthcare provider. A fast assessment is a short visual examination to guarantee safety, get an idea of the patient's health, and check for responsiveness, breathing, and a pulse if the patient appears to be unresponsive. This would be followed by a main evaluation and then a subsequent evaluation.
What is a sunroom?A sunroom is mostly a place to relax. Sunrooms, with their glass windows and skylights, create the illusion of being outside while being within.
As the person collapsed the healthcare provider should first check for responsiveness, breathing, and a pulse if the patient appears to be unresponsive.
Thus, these assessment should be followed in the given case.
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The World Health Organization (WHO) Surgical Safety Checklist is BEST equipped to address which type of error
Answer:
Lapse
Explanation:
What are the advantages of strength Exercise
What is the proper medical term for your thumb? hallux.
answer: pollux there is no explanation just pollux
The left ventricle discharges blood into the __________, from which all systemic arteries of the body diverge to supply the body tissues.
Answer:
the aorta
Explanation:
Which of the predominant philosophical schools of thoughts (received view, perceived view, or postmodernism) best encompass the profession of nursing
The predominant philosophical schools of thought that best encompassed the profession of nursing is the received view.
What is the received view?The received view is a predominant philosophical schools of thought that has the following qualities as its central building blocks:
reductionism, objectivity, measurement, quantification and validity.It is best use in nursing profession because it strongly influence the manner in which nursing care and practice has been theorised.
Therefore, the predominant philosophical schools of thought that best encompassed the profession of nursing is the received view.
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17) Dr. Lawson receives a check on 10/02/20XX for the previous month for 150 patient. The check is for the amount of $400. Attached to the check is a listing of patients. During the month of September, Dr. Lawson treated only 55 of the patients on that list. What type of insurance plan is Dr.Lawson participating in?
Answer:
Health maintenance organization (HMO) A prepaid medical service
plan
Answer:
HMO
Explanation:
He recieved for 150.
He worked for only 55He got more than twice
So it's pre medical insurance service
HMO stands for health maintanance organization
The nurse provides care for a client who is depressed and expresses hopelessness with the current situation. Which client statement indicates a need to implement safety precautions
Where the client begins to make statements that suggest a tendency to end one's own life the there is a need to implement safety precautions.
What is depression?The term depression has to do with a condition in which a person feels extremely hopeless and disappointed at life.
The options are not shown here but in cases where the client begins to make statements that suggest a tendency to end one's own life the there is a need to implement safety precautions.
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What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals
Training frequency is the variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals.
What is plyometric training?Plyometrics is a type of exercise training that builds muscle power by varying the speed and force of different movements.
Plyometrics training can boost your physical performance and ability to perform a variety of activities.
Training frequency is the variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals.
Thus, this is the variable of plyometric training.
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what should be done to ready-to-eat TCS food that will be prepped on-site and held for longer than 24 housrs
If Ready-to-eat TCS items are to be kept for more than 24 hours, they should be labeled with a date by which they must sell, be eaten, or be discarded.
What measure should be taken while storing TCS food?When keeping food, time and temperature are critical and must be closely managed. The received-on and use-by dates on stored foods should be clearly labeled. Food that is transported off-site must be tagged and kept at a specific temperature. This also applies to packaged items for self-service.
When left at the improper temperature for too long, TCS foods are more susceptible to bacterial development. TCS goods spoil more quickly and allow for harmful amounts of disease growth if not stored at the proper temperature. Foodborne disease could occur if dangerous pathogens are present.
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32 . what size (internal diameter) endotracheal tube should be used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 26 weeks (estimated birth weight of 0.8 kg)
The endotracheal tube of 2.5mm can be used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 26 weeks.
What is an endotracheal tube?Tube constructed of polyvinyl chloride, placed between the vocal cords through the trachea is referred to as endotracheal tube.
It aids to give oxygen and gases to the lungs and protects it from contamination, such as gastric contents or blood.
Typically, the endotracheal tube of 2.5mm can be used to intubate a newborn with an estimated gestational age of 26 weeks.
Thus, the size of the tube should be of 2.5mm diameter.
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A ______ works with clients to maximize physical performance, reduce the frequency of injury, and decrease the possibility of cardiovascular disease by designing programs for the specific needs of individuals (sport and activity specific
John smith is an 86-year-old male patient who was placed under general anesthesia for 30 minutes. the code used to report the anesthesia service rendered was code 00300. john had a history of an mi and, therefore, is classified with a physical status modifier of p3. this service was performed in birmingham, alabama.
The appropriate code for reporting the anesthesia service provided to John Smith is 00300-P3
This code signifies anesthesia administered for procedures involving the upper abdomen, lower abdomen, and pelvis that lasted for a duration of 30 minutes or less.
The addition of the physical status modifier P3 indicates that the patient, John Smith, possesses severe systemic disease, consequently elevating the potential risks associated with anesthesia complications during the procedure.
Moreover, it's noteworthy that the service took place in Birmingham, Alabama. This geographic location holds significance in determining the precise fee schedule and payment rates corresponding to the specific anesthesia service rendered. In essence, the code and its associated modifiers convey essential details regarding the type of procedure, patient condition, and location, facilitating accurate billing and documentation of the anesthesia service provided to John Smith.
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When 1,000 children were inoculated with a certain vaccine, some developed inflammation at the site of the inoculation and some developed fever. How many of the children developed inflammation but not fever
Answer:
100
Explanation:
Trust in me bro. this the answer