14/3, 343/32, 26/3 all in its simplest form

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

4) parallel because 118° is a supplement to 62° and the corresponding angles are both 118°

5) NOT parallel. The labeled angles sum to 120° and would sum to 180° for parallel lines.

6) NOT parallel. see pic.

If parallel, extending a line to intersect ℓ₁ makes an opposite internal angle which would also be 48°. The created triangle would have its third angle at 180 - 90 - 48 = 42° which is opposite a labeled 48° angle, which is false, so the lines cannot be parallel

7)

b = 78°  as it corresponds with a labeled angle above it

a = 180 - 78 = 102° as angles along a line from a common vertex sum to 180

f = is an opposite angle to 180 - 78 - 44 = 58° as angles along a line from a common vertex sum to 180

e = 180 - 90 - 64 = 26° as angles along a line from a common vertex sum to 180

c = 58° as it corresponds with f

d = 180 - 58 = 122° as angles along a line from a common vertex sum to 180

Answer:

  3

Step-by-step explanation:

5(9/12 -1/4) +0.5

= 5(9/12 -3/12) +1/2 . . . . . . express the fractions using a common denominator

= 5(6/12) +1/2 . . . . . . . add the fractions

= 5(1/2) +1/2 . . . . . . reduce the result

= (5 +1)(1/2) . . . . factor out 1/2 (easier than adding mixed numbers)

= 6/2 = 3

_____

A calculator can be a useful tool for evaluating numerical expressions.

answer :

120 + 6 = 126

explanation:

sa calculator lang yan haha jk

pero yan talaga ang sagot promise hindi ako ng bo-bola haha stay safe and stay positive na lang huwag lang sa c o vi d

Answer:

QTR is 36

PTR is 62

Step-by-step explanation:

P+R+T=180

It takes Brian 1.5 hours to get home from school

Speed is the ratio of distance travelled to time taken. It is given by:

Speed = distance / time

Let d represent the distance from their school to the house and t represent the time (hours) it takes Brian to teach home.

For Brian:

4 = d/t

d = 4t

For Scott:

6 = d / (t - 1/2)

d = 6t - 3

4t = 6t - 3

2t = 3

t = 1.5 hours

Therefore it takes Brian 1.5 hours to get home from school

Find out more at: https://brainly.com/question/22889670

Given values:-

P= 0.97

V= 2.85

R= 0.082

T= 295

n= ?

we have given formula,

PV=n RT

so,

n = PV/RT

[tex]n = \frac{0.97 \times 2.85}{0.082 \times 295} \\ = \frac{2.7645}{24.19} \\ = 0.1142 \\ = 0.11[/tex]

0.11 is your answer.

The measures of the angles and the lengths of the sides of the triangle can

be found using sine rule.

The correct responses are;

Reasons:

The given parameter are;

∠B = 65°20', b = 5.38 inches, c = 4.88 inches

∠C ≥ 90°

By sine rule, we have;

[tex]\dfrac{5.38}{sin(65^{\circ} 20')} = \mathbf{ \dfrac{4.88}{sin(\angle C)}}[/tex]

[tex]sin(\angle C) = \mathbf{ \dfrac{sin(65^{\circ} 20') \times 4.88}{5.38}}[/tex]

[tex]\angle C = arcsin \left(\dfrac{sin(65^{\circ} 20') \times 4.88}{5.38} \right) \approx \mathbf{ 55.517 ^{\circ}}[/tex]

∠C = 55.517° < 90°, therefore, the correct response is; None

[tex]\dfrac{sin(65^{\circ} 20')}{5.38} = \dfrac{4.88}{sin(\angle C)}[/tex]

∠A = 180° - 65°20' - 55.517° = 59.15° = 59°9'

∠A = 59°9'

Therefore;

[tex]\dfrac{5.38}{sin(65^{\circ} 20')} = \mathbf{ \dfrac{a}{sin(59.15^{})}}[/tex]

[tex]a = \dfrac{5.38 \times sin(59.15^{\circ}) }{sin(65^{\circ} 20')} \approx \mathbf{ 5.083}[/tex]

a ≈ 5.083 inches

Learn more here:

https://brainly.com/question/15018190

Answer:

y - 6 = -3 ( x - 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

Use one of the points.

m is the slope

Y - Y1 = m(X - X1)

y - 6 = -3(x - 7)

y - 6 = -3x + 21

y - 6 + 3x - 21 = 0

y - 27 + 3x = 0

3x + y - 27 = 0

Answer:

1.28 - amount

Step-by-step explanation:

You would multiply 32 times 0.04 and get 1.28 which I assume would be an amount.

The amount of 4% of 32 is 1.28.

We have to determine what is 4% of 32.

This free percentage calculator computes a number of values involving percentages, including the percentage difference between two given values.

Suppose it is an x percent.

Therefore x multiply 32 times 0.04 and get 1.28 an amount.

To learn more about the percentage of visits:

https://brainly.com/question/24304697

#SPJ2

Answer:

It leaks 420 gallons per hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

7g/m

?/h

7/1 = x/60

(Cross Multiplication)

7 × 60 = x × 1

420 = x

It leaks 420 gallons per hour.

Answer:

3.28 gallons per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the pipe is leaking at a rate of 7 fluid ounce per minute, and that we need to determine the equivalent leaking rate in gallons per hour.  It is important to establish the necessary conversion rates of fluid ounces (fl oz) to gallons (gal), and minutes to an hour.

Now that we have established the conversion rates, we can set up the following mathematical operations that will allow us to convert the leaking rate from fluid ounces per minute, to gallons per hour. We can express the conversion process in fraction form:

[tex](\frac{7 fl. oz.}{min})[/tex] × [tex](\frac{1 gal}{128 fl. oz.})[/tex] × [tex](\frac{60 min}{1 hr})[/tex]

Start by multiplying the first two fractions together:

[tex](\frac{7 fl. oz.}{min})[/tex] × [tex](\frac{1 gal}{128 fl. oz.})[/tex] = 0.546875 gallons per minute, or 0.546875 gal/min

Next, multiply 0.546875 gal/min by 60 min/hr.  This cancels out the "minute" as a unit of measurement, leaving you with gal/hr.

[tex](\frac{0.546875 gal}{min})[/tex] × [tex](\frac{60 min}{1 hr})[/tex]  = 3.28125 gallons per hour, or 3.28 gal/hr.

Therefore, the pipe is leaking at a rate of 3.28 gallons per hour.

Answer:

Hundreds : 1

Tens : 6

Ones : 2

.

Tenths : 8

Hundredths : 9

Thousandths : 1

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\small{ \displaystyle\tt \int_{0}^{1} \int_{0} ^{ x_{1}} \int_{ 0 }^{x_{2}}... \int_{ 0 }^{x_{99}} ln(1 -x_{100} ) dx_{100}... dx_{1}}[/tex]

[tex]\small{{ \displaystyle\tt = - \int_{0}^{1} \int_{0} ^{ x_{1}} \int_{ 0 }^{x_{2}}... \int_{ 0 }^{x_{98}} \sum_{n = 1}^{ \infty \frac{}{} \frac{}{} } \frac{1}{n} \int_{0}^{x_{99}} {x}^{n}_{100} \: dx_{100}...dx_{1} }}[/tex]

[tex]{{ 0 }^{x_{98}} \frac{{x}^{n + 1}_{99}}{n + 1} \: dx_{99}...dx_{1} }[/tex]

[tex]\small{ \displaystyle\tt = -\sum_{n = 1}^{ \infty \frac{}{} \frac{}{} } \frac{1}{n}\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0} ^{ x_{1}} }[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \tt= - \frac{1}{(100)!_{} } \sum_{n = 1}^{ \infty } \frac{(n - 1)!(100)!}{(n + 101)!}=−(100)!1n=1∑∞(n+101)!(n−1)!(100)![/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \tt= - \frac{1}{(100)!_{} } \sum_{n = 1}^{ \infty} \int_{0}^{1} {x}^{n - 1} (1 - x {)}^{100} [/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle \sf - \dfrac{1}{(100!)} \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{(1 - x)^{100} }{1 - x} \:[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle\tt { = - \frac{1}{(100)!} \int_{0}^{1} {x}^{99} \: dx=−(100)!1∫01x99dx}

[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]{ \pink{ \displaystyle\tt \int_{0}^{1} \int_{0} ^{ x_{1}} } \sf \pink\int_{ 0 }^{x_{2}... \int_{ 0 }^{x_{99}}} ln(1 -x_{100} ) dx_{100}... dx_{1}}[/t

︎︎︎︎︎︎︎

Goal 1000 points

c$449.58

hfufhfthcuxjyfus4hxtstcyztf

Answer:

w = 22 in, h = 8 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

Reading the problem, I immediately see two equations. This hints me towards a system of equations problem.

Statement 1 is The width of a triangle is six more than twice the height.

The width (w) of a triangle is (=) six (6) more (+) than twice (2) the height (h).

Equation 1: w = 6 + 2h

Statement 2 is The area of the triangle is 88 in2.

The formula for the area of a triangle is [tex]\frac{wh}{2}[/tex]. So, we get our second equation.

Equation 2: wh/2 = 88

We see that we have the same number of equations as unknowns, two. This is important as it lets us know that we can find two unknowns in the two equations. If there are more unknowns than equations, then we cannot find the values of all the variables. Look for another equation in the problem. However, if the # equations greater than or equal to number of unknowns, then we are ready to start solving!  So, we can now move to solving.

Equation 1 isolates one of the unknowns (w). So, we can replace w in the second equation with the right side of eq 1. Then, we simplify for h.

[tex]\frac{wh}{2} = 88[/tex]

[tex]\frac{(6 + 2h)h}{2} = 88[/tex]

[tex]\frac{6h + 2h^2}{2} = 88[/tex]

[tex]6h + 2h^2 = 176[/tex]

[tex]2h^2 + 6h - 176 = 0[/tex]

[tex]h = -11, 8[/tex] (assuming you know how to solve quadratics)

Since we know that heights of triangles cannot be negative, we find that [tex]h = 8[/tex] in.

For the final step, we plug [tex]h[/tex] into our first equation to find [tex]w[/tex].

[tex]w = 6 + 2h[/tex]

[tex]w = 6 + 2(8)[/tex]

[tex]w = 6 + 16[/tex]

[tex]w = 22[/tex]

So, the answer is w = 22 in, h = 8 in.

To check if we were right, we can plug the values into both equations to see if they are equal. I will skip equation 1 since we used that equation "as-is" to find w.

[tex]\frac{wh}{2} = 88[/tex]

[tex]\frac{22 * 8}{2} = 88[/tex]

[tex]11 * 8 = 88[/tex]

[tex]88 = 88[/tex]

The solution checks out!

(-1, -5)

x-axis is to flip the y - coordinates

y-axis is to flip the x - coordinates

Answer:

1hr 5 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

9hrs 5mins-8 hrs=1 hr 5 mins

mark me brainliest plz if you are helped

Answer:

x is 3

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x is -6

2x is 6

x is 3

Answer:

X=3

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(3)=-12

-12-5=-17

2(3)=6

-17+6=-11

Answer:

X equals positive -1.75

Step-by-step explanation:

because X is muliplying by the common number attached to it (4)

-1.75 times 4 equals -7

thus being -7-85= -92

Answer:

well you have to solve for X  so -1.75 times 4 equals -7 then solve. so your answer would be- X equals positive -1.75

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 7

4(7)-12

28-12 = 16

Answer:

[tex]-\frac{9}{r^4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Using Power rule

[tex]\frac{d}{dr} (r^n)=nr^{n-1}\\-\frac{9}{r^4}[/tex]

The answer is F'(r) = [tex]\mathrm {-\frac{9}{r^{4}}}[/tex].

We can rewrite the function as :

F(r) = 3r⁻³

Now, differentiate by power rule :

F'(r) = (-3)3r⁻³⁻¹

F'(r) = -9r⁻⁴

F'(r) = -9/r⁴

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2/3 - 1/2 ?=?

4/6 - 3/6 = 1/6 ft more

Answer:

∠ R = 90°

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the 3 angles in a triangle = 180° , that is

∠ R + ∠ S + ∠ T = 180° , substitute values

∠ R + 29° + 61° = 180°

∠ R + 90° = 180° ( subtract 90° from both sides )

∠ R = 90°

this study uses random sampling

this study uses a control group

this study uses a repeated measures design ​

plato/edmentum

Answer:

This study uses a control group. This study uses a repeated measures design.

Answer:

4.4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

It would take Shawn 4.4 hours, as this would give a time of .4 hours to Michelle, totaling 4.8 hours

Using the probability table, it is found that:

Item a:

To find the probabilities involving the total cost, we have to add the variables X and Y from the table, then:

[tex]P(X = 30) = P(X = 15|Y = 15) = 0.2[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 35) = P(X = 15|Y = 20) + P(X = 20|Y = 15) = 0.15 + 0.15 = 0.3[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 40) = P(X = 15|Y = 25) + P(X = 20|Y = 20) + P(X = 25|Y = 15) = 0.05 + 0.15 + 0.05 = 0.25[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 45) = P(X = 20|Y = 25) + P(X = 25|Y = 20) = 0.1 + 0.1 = 0.2[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 50) = P(X = 25|Y = 25) = 0.05[/tex]

The probability involving values of 45 or more is:

[tex]P(X \geq 45) = P(X = 45) + P(X = 50) = 0.2 + 0.05 = 0.25[/tex]

0.25 = 25% probability that this couple spends 45 dollars or more.

Item b:

For a discrete distribution, the expected value is the sum of each outcome multiplied by it's respective probability, hence, involving the 10% discount for prices above $45:

[tex]E(X) = 0.2(30) + 0.3(35) + 0.25(40) + 0.9[0.2(45) + 0.05(50)] = 36.85[/tex]

The expected amount the couple actually has to pay is $36.85

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/25782059

Answer:

The most common benchmark percents are 0%, 10%, 25%, 50%, 75% and 100%.

To find 60% of 280 we first find 10% of 280 which is 28. 6 x 28 = 168.

To find 60% of 280 we first find 50% of 280 which is 140. Now we add 10% which we calculated before: 140 + 28 = 168.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Explain two ways you can benchmark percents to find 60% of 280

1) 280 : 100 * 60 = 168

2) 280 * 0.6 = 168

Answer:

Money for coach tickets is $1280 and money for first class is $7600

Step-by-step explanation:

8 x 160 = 1280

8x 950 = 7600